Timeline for Under what circumstances is the construction "whose each" grammatical?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
16 events
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Feb 20, 2013 at 6:36 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
expanded on question of additional context for example phrase
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Feb 20, 2013 at 5:49 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added *in which each* suggestion
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Feb 20, 2013 at 5:33 | comment | added | Adam | I'll have to make another edit. It looks like the issue with each in place of every might have more to do with them being different types of quantifiers: jstor.org/discover/10.2307/4177586 (Jstor preview of On Post-Determiner Quantifiers by Guy Carden. See also: homepages.uwp.edu/canary/grammar_text/29-det-misc.html and flesl.net/Grammar/Grammar_Glossary/determiner.php (excercises/examples w/ explanations, much more basic). | |
Feb 19, 2013 at 0:53 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
corrected case for "[E]nglish"
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Feb 15, 2013 at 12:46 | comment | added | Jon Hanna | @Matt, I'd say in all cases "each and every" is both a determiner and an idiom used for emphasis; it's tautologous, but like many tautologous idioms, is used for emphasis. | |
Feb 15, 2013 at 9:34 | comment | added | Matt | The other obvious place where "whose each" works is for example "The solo was performed by the mezzo-soprano, whose each and every note filled the concert hall", although in this case "each and every" appears to be an idiomatic emphasis rather than as a determiner | |
Feb 15, 2013 at 6:25 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
improved limited scope of 1 example
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Feb 15, 2013 at 6:18 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
grammar fix
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Feb 15, 2013 at 5:50 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
clarifying mathematical jargon
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Feb 15, 2013 at 5:44 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
sequencing
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Feb 15, 2013 at 5:26 | comment | added | Adam | "Whose every" does work, as in, "The philosopher, whose every move seemed to be a counterexample, proved me wrong."...Revising answer. | |
Feb 15, 2013 at 5:21 | history | edited | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Addressing counterexample
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Feb 15, 2013 at 4:28 | comment | added | Peter Shor | So why is "whose every" grammatical? Isn't "every" also a determiner? | |
Feb 15, 2013 at 3:47 | comment | added | Matt | I wonder how many of the old English ones are actually using the old sentence ordering (which matches modern German sentence ordering), and the "each" is next to "whose" because the verb went to the end of the sentence, e.g. "In whose each part all tongues may dwell", which re-arranges using the modern English sentence order as "All tongues may dwell in each of it's parts"? | |
Feb 15, 2013 at 3:38 | comment | added | Adam | In the case of math textbooks, it's kinda like trying to be formal by employing archaic forms which have fallen into disuse. | |
Feb 15, 2013 at 3:34 | history | answered | Adam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |