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211 votes
Accepted

Why is Nike pronounced "naikee" and not "naik"?

Because Nike was the Greek goddess of victory (see Wikipedia) and final 'e's are not silent in Greek. Similarly, the final 'e' should be pronounced in the name Irene, as it is in other Greek-derived ...
Kate Bunting's user avatar
  • 28.1k
58 votes

Do "map" and "cat" rhyme?

Map and cat do not rhyme but they have assonance. assonance n. 2.a. Prosody. The correspondence or rhyming of one word with another in the accented vowel and those which follow, but not in the ...
Greybeard's user avatar
  • 46.4k
54 votes

Why is Nike pronounced "naikee" and not "naik"?

English spelling does not have a one-to-one relationship with English pronunciation, so it shouldn't be too much of a surprise that "Nike" does not rhyme with "bike" and "...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
38 votes
Accepted

Why is "archaic" pronounced uniquely? Is the sequence -ɪɪ- only found in this word?

The standard pronunciation in British English is really /ɑːˈkeɪ ik/ (Longman Pronunciation Dictionary), and there is no alternative. The splitting of the digraph into two phonemes is understandable as ...
LPH's user avatar
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29 votes
Accepted

Do "map" and "cat" rhyme?

It depends what meaning of rhyme you choose. The OED has a note attached to its definition of "rhyme": Rhyme, strictly speaking, is regarded as extending to the last stressed vowel and any ...
Colin Fine's user avatar
  • 77.8k
27 votes

Doesn't English have vowel harmony?

English doesn't have vowel harmony. "Vowel harmony" refers to situations where there is some process that changes vowels to be in the same class as other vowels in the word, and/or there is a ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
24 votes
Accepted

Why did John Wells need three lexical sets--NORTH, FORCE and THOUGHT--for the same vowel /ɔː/?

Because they differ in (Wells's model of) General American. The whole point of lexical sets is to make it easier to describe differences between accents. Since not only phonetic values but the ...
Nardog's user avatar
  • 1,898
22 votes
Accepted

What is the difference between /ʌɪ/ and /aɪ/ in English?

The notations /ʌɪ/ and /ɑɪ/ represent a contrastive phonemic difference that some native speakers of English produce and perceive between certain minimal pairs. For those speakers, the following are ...
tchrist's user avatar
  • 137k
20 votes

Scottish, English, why not *Walish?

It actually used to be some form of "Walish" that has since been contracted: Welsh Old English Wielisc, Wylisc (West Saxon), Welisc, Wælisc (Anglian and Kentish); but it actually meant "foreign" ...
Robusto's user avatar
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20 votes
Accepted

Why doesn't English employ an H in front of Ares?

Hermes and Ares are reasonable representations in the Latin alphabet of the sounds of the Greek names. The /h/ sound is absent from classical Greek spellings of words which contained it (like Hermes) ...
StoneyB on hiatus's user avatar
19 votes

Why is Nike pronounced "naikee" and not "naik"?

It is important to remember that English spelling, traditionally, has no intention of describing pronunciation - its intent is rather to describe etymology (ie word origin). Only incidentally, through ...
Pieter Geerkens's user avatar
19 votes

Why are there 4 ambiguous phonetic symbols in IPA representations of English?

Actually, it's "worse" than that. Nearly all the vowels of English have more than one possible representation in IPA. For example: The vowel sound of the word "kit" can be written as [ɪ] or [i] The ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
18 votes

Why are there 4 ambiguous phonetic symbols in IPA representations of English?

Within one language community, the IPA may be simplified for dictionary entries. The /r/ is a classic example. In strict IPA usage, it is the sign for an r sound with a short trill, as in Italian Roma,...
KarlG's user avatar
  • 28.2k
16 votes

Why is "archaic" pronounced uniquely? Is the sequence -ɪɪ- only found in this word?

In English, there's a phoneme commonly called "long A" (because it evolved from what used to be a lengthened /a:/). This part's pretty uncontroversial: it's the phoneme in the middle of &...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 1,170
15 votes
Accepted

Syndrome: older pronunciation?

There is an old pronunciation of "syndrome" with three syllables (stress on the first). John Walker's Critical Pronouncing Dictionary of 1791 only gives a trisyllabic pronunciation, "si²...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
12 votes
Accepted

Scottish, English, why not *Walish?

Note that Scottish has the contracted form “Scotch” (also “Scots”, where the use of /s/ is I think a Scottish feature). I would guess that the consonant cluster in the middle of “English” inhibited ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
10 votes

Why are there 4 ambiguous phonetic symbols in IPA representations of English?

What you are seeing is not variation in pronunciation by different varieties. Most all dictionaries (OED, M-W, Collins, online dictionaries) will give one pronunciation for British English (RP) or ...
Mitch's user avatar
  • 72.1k
10 votes

What is the difference between /ʊ/ and /ʌ/ in British English?

The sounds of /ʌ/ and /ʊ/ are only moderately similar from a strictly phonetic point of view. However, in the context of phonology, you might feel like the difference is "[so] minor that you ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
9 votes

Why does a silent "-e" at the end of a word lengthen vowels?

The historical reason for this spelling pattern in general is most likely a process of vowel "lengthening" that applied in Middle English to certain words that previously ended in a schwa ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
9 votes

Why did John Wells need three lexical sets--NORTH, FORCE and THOUGHT--for the same vowel /ɔː/?

A lexical set does not represent a vowel. It represents a set of words that are all pronounced with the same vowel phoneme in Wells's two reference accents of "Received Pronunciation" and &...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
8 votes

Why are there 4 ambiguous phonetic symbols in IPA representations of English?

Vowels change. A hundred years ago, the standard southern British pronunciations of bear, cat, code, and cut were [bɛə], [kæt], [koʊd], and [kʌt]. Now, they're [bɛ:], [kat], [kəʊd], and [kɐt]. Why do ...
Peter Shor 's user avatar
7 votes

Why is the pronunciation of "Exodus" different from the spelling?

Unstressed vowels in English tend to be reduced Exodus differs from exotic because exodus is stressed on the first syllable, while exotic is stressed on the second. Unfortunately, there is no single ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
7 votes
Accepted

/ɑ/ vs /ʌ/ pronunciation

It's hard to answer this question for a few reasons: the difference between /ɑ/ and /ʌ/ is different in different accents of American English I'm not personally familar with Hebrew, so I can only go ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
7 votes

Different /ə/ pronunciation at the end of a word; for example, in "phenomena"

On /phonemic/ vs [phonetic] Transcriptions What’s going on here is that some dictionaries are sometimes using detailed phonetics yet placing them within the slashes that should be used only for ...
tchrist's user avatar
  • 137k
7 votes

Why are "fun" and "hulk" phonetically transcribed with the same vowel but pronounced differently?

In many dialects of English, the vowel /ʌ/ is typically altered when it is followed by an /l/. In some dialects of American English, the word color is usually an exception to this rule (probably ...
Peter Shor 's user avatar
7 votes

What is the difference between /ʌɪ/ and /aɪ/ in English?

If you click on the U.S. pronunciation in Lexico, it gives /naɪt/ (https://www.lexico.com/en/definition/night). They represent the same phoneme, and you can pronounce it either way (although it might ...
Peter Shor 's user avatar
7 votes
Accepted

Variants of the /æ/ sound?

Many American English speakers use multiple allophones for the phoneme /æ/, but the number of allophones, the sounds used, and the distribution of the sounds can all differ between accents. In some ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
6 votes

Doesn't English have vowel harmony?

The English language doesn't have vowel harmony. If it did, pronunciations of many words would be different. You would still bequeath, but probably botrothe yourself rather than betrothe, and ...
Chris Rogers's user avatar
  • 1,036
6 votes

Do Americans who have the cot–caught merger pronounce 'all', 'tall', 'Paul', etc. with the same vowel quality as 'lot'?

I don't know of any good summary of this, but I do recall heard accounts from specific speakers who say that they use something like [ɔ] before /l/ as a conditioned allophone of /ɑ/. I would be very ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 84.5k
6 votes

Why are there 4 ambiguous phonetic symbols in IPA representations of English?

Vowels in English are notoriously varied. It very much depends on your accent as to which sound you produce. And that in turn depends on your region and class. I have always learned that /ɛ/ is short ...
Oliver Mason's user avatar
  • 3,244

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