New answers tagged

2

In much of the U.S., /u:/ and /ju:/ have merged after /t/, /d/, and /n/. That means if you pronounce noon as /nju:n/, people will still understand you, and probably won't even notice you're pronouncing it differently than they do. I don't know if I've heard people use /ju:/ after /n/, but I've definitely heard it after /d/ and /t/. This is generally called ...


4

I was taught to pronounce the oo in either afternoon or noon as the oo in nook That was poor teaching - it is wrong. Standard pronunciation: noon, n.Brit. /nuːn/; U.S. /nun/; moon, n.Brit. /muːn/; U.S. /mun/ nook, n. Brit. /nʊk/, U.S. /nʊk/ (some dialects pronounce as /nuːk/ particularly parts of Scotland - but this is non-standard.) until I found native ...


14

In certain dialects of English, superhands and Super Hans may sound identical because of two reasons: 1. Insertion of [d] in Hans Hans may be pronounced with an epenthetic/intrusive [d] because of a phenomenon called epenthesis. Epenthesis is the pronunciation of an unhistorical sound within a word. Consonants and vowels are usually inserted into words for ...


2

As far as I can tell, it's something named "Tenseness Reversal". As described in Background to English Pronunciation by Ádám Nádasdy (2006, ISBN 9631957918, p. 155), it means a pronunciation where the letter has one of its standard values, but violates a tense/lax choice rule. The grapheme has the “wrong” tenseness value: it is tense when it ...


12

Yes, [z] + [j] → [ʒ]. The [z] is an alveolar sound (i.e. articulated at the alveolar ridge) while [j] is a palatal sound (articulated at the hard palate), so when [j] comes right after [z], it pulls the place of articulation of [z] towards the hard palate, making it [ʒ]. The technical term for this phenomenon is assimilation. In this case, it's assimilation ...


2

To answer one of your questions, this vowel shift does not happen before nasals other than /ŋ/, but in some dialects it also happens before /g/. Here is a Grammar Girl article about it. Where does it happen? I don't have a complete answer for that. Grammar Girl says that it happens in the Pacific Northwest and Western Canada, but as John Lawler mentions in ...


1

As you may already know, a stop consonant like [t] consists of three parts: the approach, where you bring two parts of your vocal tract together to cut off the airflow; the closure, where the airflow is stopped; and the release, where you let it out again. For voiceless stops (again like [t]), the closure is completely silent, so the only parts we hear are ...


17

In English, there's a phoneme commonly called "long A" (because it evolved from what used to be a lengthened /a:/). This part's pretty uncontroversial: it's the phoneme in the middle of "face". However, linguists have different views on how to transcribe this sound. It's often pronounced as a diphthong, so some people write it as /eɪ/, /...


5

This should be a comment, but it wont let me make a comment. In elementary American english grammar rules, a vowel followed by another vowel, or a vowel followed by a consonant by another vowel is a long vowel. pronounce it as three syllables: ar + cha (long a) + ic (short i). which is indicated in the pronunciation representation "-keIIk" ...


0

There is apparently nothing particular about "-ify" and the most probable phenomenon to be associated to this restitution of the g (widely applicable) is the reduction of the long vowel (/aɪ/, /eɪ/, /u:/ to a short one (/ɪ/, /ʌ/) or simply the possible choice of a short vowel before non ending "-gn" (dignity); the adoption of a long ...


1

Your question is based on a false premise. According to Etymology online the word signify comes not from 'sign' but from the Latin 'significare' via the Old French 'signifier'. The same source gives the origin of both the noun and verb sign as the Latin word 'signum' via the Old French 'signe'. The 'gn' in 'signe' and, probably in 'signifier' would have been ...


-2

Sorry, but I have to correct the Authors post. The correct version in the UK is 'Medicine' I'm from the South of England and was educated here, we were taught to pronounce it Medicine. In fact I've never heard anyone pronounce it as med-cine. The only time was when I met a Dutch school teacher on holiday who kept pronouncing med-cine. In fact after further ...


0

English spelling was irregular and broadly based upon pronunciation until the 1700s when the change towards standardisation started in earnest. The choice, as you see was in the final consonant – French influence and origins favoured the “t”, but English favoured the “d” – and, with waning French influence, that won. OED Diamond /ˈdʌɪəmənd/ Etymology: ...


4

Just to be clear. The base Greek Word is αρχη, pronounced archi - but the 'ch' is like a guttural 'h', meaning beginning or origin. The adjectives formed from it are αρχαιος (pronounced archayos) and αρχαyϊκος (with the 'i' separately pronounced). They differ slightly in meaning. The former means ancient or old; the latter has the overtone of 'out of ...


39

The standard pronunciation in British English is really /ɑːˈkeɪ ik/ (Longman Pronunciation Dictionary), and there is no alternative. The splitting of the digraph into two phonemes is understandable as a remnant of the initial pronunciation intended to preserve the French ([aʀkaik]); in the French pronunciation /ai/ is not a diphthong, but two separate ...


2

Most of the unusual behavior of [ŋ] can be explained in its historical origin from simplification of the consonant cluster [ŋg] (in words where [ŋ] occurs in modern English outside of the clusters [ŋg] and [ŋk]). Compare the behavior of the consonant cluster [mp]: like [ŋ], [mp] cannot occur at the start of a syllable and rarely occurs after a diphthong or &...


3

The word metaplasm or effective spelling conveys the meaning you're looking for Metaplasm is a rhetorical term for any alteration in the form of a word, in particular, the addition, subtraction, or substitution of letters or sounds. Or this definition A general term for orthographical figures (changes to the spelling of words). This includes alteration of ...


0

It depends to an extent on the country in which you live. For example, in Greece (and, I believe, France) they recite in two-digit numbers, but with the word 'zero' ('Oh' or, in Greek, 'midhen' - as in 'me then') so for 1872 438962 eighteen, seventy two, forty three, eighty nine, sixty two If there is an odd number of digits, different people do different ...


1

You are asking about "some proper terms". In a comment, John Lawler said... Most speakers have numbers (phone, social security, license, etc) memorized and their pronunciation will become ritualized in their speech. But we don't have a term for it. But I disagree. One of the terms might be the psychological concept ... chunking the process by ...


1

I'll start by saying this is not a very answerable question. For one thing, it's far from obvious that rules about what "English allows" are 100% knowable. Some sequences of sounds exist in only one or a handful of words; e.g. the Wikipedia page List of English words without rhymes gives gouge, scarce, ninth as the only words ending in the rimes /...


2

According to the following source, the h was lost because of its unemphasized position: The h- was lost due to being in an unemphasized position, as in modern speech the h- in "give it to him," "ask her," is heard only "in the careful speech of the partially educated" [Weekley, Ernest, An Etymological Dictionary of Modern ...


33

I would say it is a combination of two factors that show up separately in other sounds with token frequency on the low end. /ʒ/ never developed in vocabulary inherited from Proto-Germanic English is categorized as a Germanic language, which is a group of languages that are all thought to be descended from a common ancestor that we call Proto-Germanic. (The ...


11

I am by no means an expert on answering such questions but here is my best shot: In Old English, the voiced fricatives [z v ð] only occurred as allophones of /s f θ/ respectively. (I am not sure if Old English /x/ had a voiced allophone, but that is not related here so I will skip it.) Those voiced fricatives ([z v ð]) only occurred when they were in between ...


1

They do not rhyme: whirred sounds like word if you have the wine-whine merger so /wɜːd/, or /ʍɜːd/ if not broidered (perhaps embroidered is more common) is /bɹɔɪdəd/, so a different vowel sound and length at the end


1

"Tiaron" is entirely plausible too, along with "Tyrinn" and "Tirynn" "Tirohn" too... Anyways, just a few suggestions.


1

There are multiple sets of rules, which conflict with each other in some points. Some parts of the rules rely on information not present in the spelling. And some words are pronounced irregularly, in a way that doesn't follow any of the sets of rules (or sometimes, different parts of a word are pronounced according to different sets of rules). So as a whole, ...


1

With regard to the origin of "Porto Rico" in English-language texts, it may be of interest that Early English Books Online finds 50 unique sources containing the term from the period 1599–1700. The earliest of these is Richard Haykluyt, The Principal Nauigations, Voyages, Traffiques and Discoueries of the English Nation (1599–1600), where it ...


2

I agree almost fully with the explanation "There are no common English words starting with /pwɛr/ or /pwer/. The consonant cluster /pw/ only occurs in words recently taken from a foreign language, or still felt as foreign." English has Pueblo (Colorado), puerile, and puerility, all of which are integrated. In addition to that explanations, there is ...


0

Cinnamon is generally more common and well-known than nutmeg among non-cooks, in my experience, and according to what I've read, we humans tend to list first the word that comes to mind first, or that we are more familiar with, or that we view as more relevant, when it comes to groupings or lists like these. Source for the second claim: A study speculating ...


2

Compound Word There are three types of compound words: open (with a space between, as in your examples) closed (as in "grandmother") hyphenated (as in "high-speed") You are referring to open compound words.


3

American English flap is regulated predominantly by stress. In order for "t" to get flapped, the syllable immediately before "t" must be stressed as strongly, or more strongly than, the following syllable where "t" is in the onset. For example: atom [ˈæ.t̬əm] --> the syllable [ˈæ] is stressed, the syllable [t̬əm] is ...


2

In an unstressed suffix, nasal sounds like /n/ are frequently reduced to nasality on the vowels. Native speakers hear the /n/; non-native speakers don't, because they don't recognize nasality, especially in a reduced unstressed final syllable. – John Lawler


0

My suspicion—based on my own (American English) pronunciation—is that the presence of flap/no-flap is conditioned by the following consonant. In brief, if the 't' is followed by an 'r', an 'l', or 'ng' (flyswatter, capital, ferreting), it will have a flap; if not, no flap (e.g. decapitate, ferreted, Caratunk)


3

"... with a different cadence [...] with its own meaning and pronunciation." -OP I am interpreting that to mean stress, or intonation. In speech, Compounds are indicated by putting the stress on the first word. A simple adjective + noun collocation has the stress on the second word. For example, "go left at the 'white house'" ...may ...


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