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2

The question was about pronunciation, not spelling or derivation. In English, we say coat, boat, moat and stoat without pronouncing the 'o' and 'a' separately, as you might do in Spanish etc. Take off the 't' at the end and you get coa-, boa- and stoa- etc. So the -oa- bit is pronounced as the 'o' sound in bone, phone, stone or cone. Of course 'o' takes lots ...


15

This is wrong, at least in the U.S. In the U.S., the pronunciation of has is /hæz/, except when it appears in the construction has to, when it is pronounced /hæs/. He has two leaves: /z/. He has to leave: /s/. (The /s/ and /z/ often change their degree of voicing somewhat depending on whether a voiced or non-voiced consonant follows, but this is the case ...


3

Let's take moved for our example. When Shakespeare wrote, both the two-syllable pronunciation, /muvəd/, and the one-syllable pronunciation /muvd/ were in use. He used whichever would make his verse scan, and he indicated the two-syllable pronunciation as moved and the one-syllable pronunciation as mov'd. Sonnet XXXI: But things remou'd that hidden in ...


5

First, for some historical context - accent grave (è) comes from Ancient Greek, and was part of a system developed for marking intonation. When the language moved to a stress-based system, the diacritics were adapted to that use: "Ancient Greek had three accentual signs: (1) the acute (indicating a rising tone . . . , (2) the circumflex . . . , and (3) ...


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