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6 votes

Are there nouns that undergo no change when used in the possessive (Saxon genitive)?

I think you might be mistaking attributive nouns in noun–noun compounds for possessive nouns with apostrophes, but I’m not completely certain. When you have a child entertainer, the word child is ...
tchrist's user avatar
  • 136k
4 votes

“…the house of our neighbor's” vs. “…the house of our neighbors' ”

Neither is correct; no apostrophe is needed with this construction. However, if you said ' our neighbours' house', the apostrophe goes at the end if more than one person lives there, or before ...
Kate Bunting's user avatar
  • 26.2k
3 votes

Why are some possessives formed with “of ” but not apostrophe-“s”?

English speakers preferentially use the possessive apostrophe when the possessor is a living entity. When the owner is a living entity, the prepositional phrasing is technically correct, but the ...
mRotten's user avatar
  • 1,086
3 votes

Should it be Champions' League comeback or Champions League comeback?

I think it is correct to use the "official" name regardless if we like its punctation, i.e. no apostrophe as in: UEFA's website uses the following style consistently: UEFA Champions League latest ...
k1eran's user avatar
  • 22.6k
2 votes

“…the house of our neighbor's” vs. “…the house of our neighbors' ”

The answer is 1. But please note that there is a basic syntax problem. You don't say both "of" and "’s", so the correct syntax is: We had Thanksgiving dinner at our neighbor’s house. Or: We ...
ib11's user avatar
  • 754
2 votes

Why is the genitive case necessary/unecessary in the examples below?

Actually, I would have said that in the first sentence, "Netflix" operates as a noun modifying the word "subscriber," just as it does in the phrase "Netflix subscription." Note phrases like "magazine ...
Lewis Eisen's user avatar
2 votes

Possessive with acronyms

No, they are not treated differently. The possessive form of the apostrophe applies to an acronym as elsewhere. The acronym forms a proper noun.
Brenda 's user avatar
  • 250
2 votes

"Teams members" or "Team members" (considering we are talking about 2 teams)?

As the comments to your question indicate, team members is used regardless of the number of teams. It is ambiguous compared to other languages that would pluralize team in that case. If you need to ...
jlliagre's user avatar
  • 740
1 vote

Apostrophe 's, "of", or nothing to show possession/ownership?

why do we sometimes show possession/ownership using 's or of, why sometime not? Neither the Saxon genitive (the family's name), nor "of" (the name of the family), nor noun1 + noun2 (the ...
Greybeard's user avatar
  • 43.4k
1 vote

Apostrophe 's, "of", or nothing to show possession/ownership?

As your suggested alternatives indicate, there are any number of ways of showing ownership, both specifically and generally by simply subtracting an 's or adding a couple of words (as in "the dog'...
rhetorician's user avatar
  • 19.4k
1 vote

Which one of these sentences is better? A thesis title - Apostrophes Showing Possession

In a comment, John Lawler wrote: When you're already using apostrophes to represent non-English phonetics or spelling, using an apostrophized possessive in addition is a risk. My suggestion: ...
1 vote

Possessive form: Others vs Others'

Your examples are generally ambiguous, as spoken, and the spelling depends on what is meant. Your example “My Morals are mine, not others’" means that my morals are mine alone, not the same as the ...
Greg Lee's user avatar
  • 17.5k

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