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46 votes

"wanna" at the end of a sentence

"Wanna" can, in conversation, be an extremely casual spoken substitute for either "want a" or "want to". "I wanna watch" can either mean "I want a [wrist] watch" or "I want to watch [something]". If "...
Michael Harvey's user avatar
37 votes

What does "I'za" mean?

It's simply a way of contracting "I is a". In your context I would guess it's a faked patois.
Hot Licks's user avatar
  • 27.5k
31 votes

Did Old English (Anglo-Saxon) use contractions?

Yes, Old English had contractions: Old English contractions include nis from ne is (“is not”), naes from ne waes (“was not”), nolde from ne wolde (“would not”), naefde from ne haefde (“did not have”...
Laurel's user avatar
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31 votes
Accepted

Can “does” be contracted?

According to Merriam-Webster and Dictionary.com, "what's" is short for: "what is" (What's the matter?) "what has" (What's happened to the car?) "what does" (What's that mean?) So it appears that "...
Michael Benjamin's user avatar
27 votes

What does "I'za" mean?

"He sez I'za gonna look like you some day" . google books and I'se 1847 in representations of African-American vernacular, a contraction of I is (see is), irregular for I am. (etymonline) ...
lbf's user avatar
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19 votes

Can I contract "you is" to "you's"?

There is no very specific definition of what "proper contraction" means. From some people's point of view, it is most "proper" to avoid contractions altogether—despite the fact ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 83.4k
18 votes

"wanna" at the end of a sentence

To be clear, I understand your question to be primarily about grammar as it applies to pronunciation, not primarily about spelling, since you said "it sounds odd to me". There are certainly ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 83.4k
17 votes

Why does Kipling use an apostrophe on 'rickshaw?

According to the OED, Rickshaw is from the Japanese jinrikisha A light two-wheeled hooded vehicle having springs and two shafts, drawn by one or more men. First used in Japan c1870, but now common in ...
Stuart F's user avatar
  • 10.5k
13 votes

Did Old English (Anglo-Saxon) use contractions?

Yes, in Old English, we find contractions. Nis is the contraction of ne is (meaning “is not”) and naefde from ne haefde (meaning “did not have”). Naes was from ne waes (meaning “was not”) and ...
user 66974's user avatar
  • 67.5k
12 votes

Is D-glottalization a plausible explanation of ambiguity in Donald Trump interview with WSJ?

Overview I'm going to try a little experiment here. I ask for the forbearance of my colleagues on EL&U. I want to share some data, but I do not have the expertise to interpret the data. So I want ...
11 votes

Can I contract "you is" to "you's"?

Yes, and it's been done. A quick Google of 'lyrics "loving you's"' shows: "Loving You's A Dirty Job (But Somebody's Gotta Do It)", on Bonnie Tyler's 1986 album "Secret Dreams ...
CCTO's user avatar
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11 votes
Accepted

Is "don't" a particle of its own?

Questions like Why do you play chess? display subject auxiliary inversion; the auxiliary verb do appears before the subject you. In a normal declarative clause, the adverb not occurs after the first ...
Araucaria - Him's user avatar
9 votes

"wanna" at the end of a sentence

It's just a short way of saying 'want to', so it doesn't need something to follow after it as it can stand alone. It isn't formal English.
ollymedz's user avatar
  • 107
9 votes

is "weren't you..." considered grammatically correct? Because expanded, it would translate to "were not you..."

It's absolutely considered grammatically correct. Remember, languages change over time, and abbreviations being added to languages is normal, sometimes leaving the abbreviation in common usage but the ...
Gabriel Staples's user avatar
8 votes

Did Old English (Anglo-Saxon) use contractions?

nyllan = ne willan and similar negations (nabban = ne habban) (see bosworth-toller http://bosworth.ff.cuni.cz/023953 for nyllan) This is covered in Mitchell and Robinson's "Guide to Old English", but ...
danch's user avatar
  • 111
8 votes

Is “not’ve” a valid [𝒔𝒊𝒄] contraction in either of spoken English or written English – or both or neither?

The contracted form not've is valid, especially among native speakers although it is uncommon in formal writing. In fact, contracted forms are becoming increasingly popular. Just 6 days ago a member ...
Mari-Lou A's user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

How is "iff" different from "if"

I agree with your assumption and not with Dictionary.com. Like XOR, iff should only be used in a mathematical or philosophical context. In normal English prose, "iff" is not a word, it's a ...
Juhasz's user avatar
  • 7,588
6 votes

Is D-glottalization a plausible explanation of ambiguity in Donald Trump interview with WSJ?

To my ears, 45 says "I'd probably..." with an unaspirated d, hardly surprising before another stop in casual, hurried speech that elides most everything. The word would that hangs in the air following ...
KarlG's user avatar
  • 28.2k
6 votes

In English grammar, what is the difference between a contraction and a clitic (or enclitic)?

These words have been used in various ways, but they are not synonymous. "Contraction" can refer to various kinds of "shortenings", either in spoken language or in writing. Written contractions in ...
herisson's user avatar
  • 83.4k
6 votes
Accepted

What is the meaning of '"It's nart'ral" in "Pollyanna" by Eleanor H. Porter?

As Kate Bunting notes in a comment beneath the posted question, "nart'ral" is simply an eye-dialect representation of natural. It is far less common in Google Books search results than the ...
Sven Yargs's user avatar
  • 165k
5 votes

Are there such forms as this's and which's?

You are certainly right that contractions of this is to this's and which is to which's are far less common than contractions of who is to who's and how is to how's. The most likely explanation is also ...
Sven Yargs's user avatar
  • 165k
5 votes

Is there a limit to what words can be contracted with "are"? What about "where're" and "here're"?

In the American English that I'm familiar with, native speakers do not typically say Where you going? To my ear, it is usually pronounced with an extra beat, making it Where r you going? which I ...
Ignatz's user avatar
  • 69
5 votes

Amn’t - where does it occur in the US?

In modern usage, amn't as primarily Scottish and Irish, but according to the OED, it appears to have been more widespread in the past, falling out of use as shifts in vowel patterns made it more ...
choster's user avatar
  • 43.4k
5 votes
Accepted

Is it mandatory to use contractions in tag questions and the like?

It’s just extremely common to see tag questions that use contractions as opposed to their uncontracted forms. A COCA search for , _v* * * ? (comma, verb, two words, and a question mark; note that “n’...
Laurel's user avatar
  • 66.7k
5 votes
Accepted

Is there a way to create a contraction between any noun and the word "is"?

Yes, you can say "Amanda's out of town". Any noun or noun phrase may be part of a contraction. For example, "the king of England's about to die". One of the comments above says ...
siride's user avatar
  • 1,052
5 votes

Why isn't "I had to" contracted to "I'd to" unlike other auxiliary usage of the verb "had"?

"Had" in "I had to leave" is not an auxiliary verb. It can even be used with an auxiliary, e.g. "I have had to leave", "I might have to leave". And it always (...
Forero's user avatar
  • 75
4 votes
Accepted

Has there ever been " 'tis " in AmE?

Here is an Ngram chart showing the trend in published usage of 'tis over the period 1800–2005 in American publications: Even the very substantial long-term downward trend that is evident in this ...
Sven Yargs's user avatar
  • 165k
4 votes
Accepted

When to use opening or closing single quotes

In numbers that have been abbreviated, such as: in the ’90s Dean’s List ’15-’16 The apostrophe denotes the presence of abbreviation, much as in: I’ll, let’s, where’d, can’t, ma’am, e’en, ... ’tis, ’...
user21820's user avatar
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