73 votes

How is y’all’dn’t’ve pronounced

As an American Southerner, I had a good laugh when I read this. Depending on where you're from, this could either be incredibly easy or nigh impossible to pronounce. Look at the words 'didn't' and ...
Adam Hayes's user avatar
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53 votes
Accepted

How is y’all’dn’t’ve pronounced

I'd say this contraction of "you all would not have" as three syllables: [ˈjɔːɫ.ᵈn̩.tɘ̆v]. [ˈjɔːɫ] is y'all, a contraction of you all that serves as the plural of you in Dixie-influenced dialects of ...
Damian Yerrick's user avatar
48 votes

Why is 'Where's it' Grammatically incorrect?

Because the logical stress in that sentence falls on "is": Where IS it? If you abbreviate the stressed syllable, it results in nothing but nonsense.
Ricky's user avatar
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46 votes

"wanna" at the end of a sentence

"Wanna" can, in conversation, be an extremely casual spoken substitute for either "want a" or "want to". "I wanna watch" can either mean "I want a [wrist] watch" or "I want to watch [something]". If "...
Michael Harvey's user avatar
37 votes

What does "I'za" mean?

It's simply a way of contracting "I is a". In your context I would guess it's a faked patois.
Hot Licks's user avatar
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34 votes

Why is 'Where's it' Grammatically incorrect?

The clitic 's meaning "is" can only be used to substitute for a "weak form" is (pronounced /əz/). The is in in "Where is it" is the "strong form" is (pronounced /ɪz/) since it is used as a main verb ...
nohat's user avatar
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31 votes
Accepted

Can “does” be contracted?

According to Merriam-Webster and Dictionary.com, "what's" is short for: "what is" (What's the matter?) "what has" (What's happened to the car?) "what does" (What's that mean?) So it appears that "...
Michael Benjamin's user avatar
30 votes

Did Old English (Anglo-Saxon) use contractions?

Yes, Old English had contractions: Old English contractions include nis from ne is (“is not”), naes from ne waes (“was not”), nolde from ne wolde (“would not”), naefde from ne haefde (“did not have”...
Laurel's user avatar
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27 votes

What does "I'za" mean?

"He sez I'za gonna look like you some day" . google books and I'se 1847 in representations of African-American vernacular, a contraction of I is (see is), irregular for I am. (etymonline) ...
lbf's user avatar
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23 votes

How is y’all’dn’t’ve pronounced

I think most native English speakers would have similar troubles. I wouldn't worry too much about it. Also, different people will say this different ways: somebody from Virginia (like me) will say it ...
Kevin Workman's user avatar
21 votes

How is y’all’dn’t’ve pronounced

In the South the phrase "Y'all would not have . . . " would most commonly be pronounced "Yaw woot nuh" with woot rhyming with foot. "Y'all would not have done that" = "Yaw woot nuh dun nat."
John Wayland Bales's user avatar
19 votes

Can I contract "you is" to "you's"?

There is no very specific definition of what "proper contraction" means. From some people's point of view, it is most "proper" to avoid contractions altogether—despite the fact ...
herisson's user avatar
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18 votes

"wanna" at the end of a sentence

To be clear, I understand your question to be primarily about grammar as it applies to pronunciation, not primarily about spelling, since you said "it sounds odd to me". There are certainly ...
herisson's user avatar
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13 votes
Accepted

Isn't a “gonner” or “gonna” slang for a person about to die?

Gonner is a rare spelling variant of goner. Goner TFD n. slang One that is ruined or doomed. "I'm a goner if this plan doesn't work" M-W n. someone or something that is going to die or ...
NVZ's user avatar
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13 votes

Did Old English (Anglo-Saxon) use contractions?

Yes, in Old English, we find contractions. Nis is the contraction of ne is (meaning “is not”) and naefde from ne haefde (meaning “did not have”). Naes was from ne waes (meaning “was not”) and ...
user 66974's user avatar
12 votes

Is D-glottalization a plausible explanation of ambiguity in Donald Trump interview with WSJ?

Overview I'm going to try a little experiment here. I ask for the forbearance of my colleagues on EL&U. I want to share some data, but I do not have the expertise to interpret the data. So I want ...
11 votes

Can I contract "you is" to "you's"?

Yes, and it's been done. A quick Google of 'lyrics "loving you's"' shows: "Loving You's A Dirty Job (But Somebody's Gotta Do It)", on Bonnie Tyler's 1986 album "Secret Dreams ...
CCTO's user avatar
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9 votes

Why is 'Where's it' Grammatically incorrect?

Generally speaking, I'm of the mind that technical writing should follow the same conventions as formal and academic writing, which is one reason to avoid the contraction. That being said, I think ...
moismailzai's user avatar
9 votes

"wanna" at the end of a sentence

It's just a short way of saying 'want to', so it doesn't need something to follow after it as it can stand alone. It isn't formal English.
ollymedz's user avatar
  • 107
9 votes

is "weren't you..." considered grammatically correct? Because expanded, it would translate to "were not you..."

It's absolutely considered grammatically correct. Remember, languages change over time, and abbreviations being added to languages is normal, sometimes leaving the abbreviation in common usage but the ...
Gabriel Staples's user avatar
8 votes

Why is 'Where's it' Grammatically incorrect?

The repetitive-contrastive stress in the sentence produces stress on "is", which can't receive stress when it's a clitic ("A clitic is a morpheme that has syntactic characteristics of a word, but ...
JEL's user avatar
  • 32.6k
8 votes

How is y’all’dn’t’ve pronounced

If the uncontracted expression starts as "you all would not have ..." the natural progression would be "y'all woudn't have" /jal wødnt hæv/ (with syllabic 'n'). This is exceedingly formal. "y'all ...
Mitch's user avatar
  • 70.6k
8 votes

Did Old English (Anglo-Saxon) use contractions?

nyllan = ne willan and similar negations (nabban = ne habban) (see bosworth-toller http://bosworth.ff.cuni.cz/023953 for nyllan) This is covered in Mitchell and Robinson's "Guide to Old English", but ...
danch's user avatar
  • 111
8 votes

Is “not’ve” a valid [𝒔𝒊𝒄] contraction in either of spoken English or written English – or both or neither?

The contracted form not've is valid, especially among native speakers although it is uncommon in formal writing. In fact, contracted forms are becoming increasingly popular. Just 6 days ago a member ...
Mari-Lou A's user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

How is "iff" different from "if"

I agree with your assumption and not with Dictionary.com. Like XOR, iff should only be used in a mathematical or philosophical context. In normal English prose, "iff" is not a word, it's a ...
Juhasz's user avatar
  • 7,473
6 votes

Is D-glottalization a plausible explanation of ambiguity in Donald Trump interview with WSJ?

To my ears, 45 says "I'd probably..." with an unaspirated d, hardly surprising before another stop in casual, hurried speech that elides most everything. The word would that hangs in the air following ...
KarlG's user avatar
  • 27.9k
6 votes

In English grammar, what is the difference between a contraction and a clitic (or enclitic)?

These words have been used in various ways, but they are not synonymous. "Contraction" can refer to various kinds of "shortenings", either in spoken language or in writing. Written contractions in ...
herisson's user avatar
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