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A pronoun is a word that can function by itself as a noun phrase.

1
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Both are grammatically correct. In British English, the second is normal, and the first almost unknown. I have read that in US English, style guides prefer the first. Other Englishes tend to follow …
answered Jan 24 '16 by Colin Fine
4
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It depends whether you're asking about English, or about the artificial language made up by grammarians a couple of hundred years ago on the basis of "If only this were Latin", and inflicted on school …
answered Jun 21 '16 by Colin Fine
5
votes
My iPhone offers me "it's" in all circumstances: I have to reject that to get "its". Assuming other iPhones behave likewise (and perhaps other devices too) that would seem likely to account for the pr …
answered Jan 13 '11 by Colin Fine
4
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Historically, "that" was much more common for non-physical referents, except where it was cataphoric, i.e. referred to something which hadn't yet been clarified. So To be or not to be? That is the …
answered Jul 27 '11 by Colin Fine
4
votes
Nobody has directly addressed the question of why "whoever able to ... " is ungrammatical, whereas "anyone able to ... " works. The point is that "who(ever)" is a relative pronoun, and must introduc …
answered Oct 18 '11 by Colin Fine
1
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It's not a clause at all, not even a small clause, as it doesn't contain a verb or a participle. It's simply a noun phrase in apposition.
answered Sep 27 '17 by Colin Fine
2
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Lynne Murphy has written about this in her blog "Separated by a common language". Her answer is, It's complicated. British usage is different from American, and the patterns vary depending on the in …
answered Jun 20 '16 by Colin Fine
3
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"Correct" is a social judgment, not a linguistic one. The OED has examples of singular their going back to 1382, but there are still people around who think there is something wrong with it. If yo …
answered Mar 21 by Colin Fine
0
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It is usually analysed as a complementizer, which packages up the sentence "we should legalize abortion" as a noun phrase. This is easier to see with a context where a noun phrase is normal, eg as t …
answered Oct 1 '18 by Colin Fine
0
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It's preferable to ask your questions separately, rather than all together, but I will endeavour to answer. I know not is the older form of I do not know. I'm not sure when it really went obsolete ( …
answered Dec 31 '18 by Colin Fine
7
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In modern English The direct object is the person you are asking, the indirect object is thing you are asking for - usually with "for". So I asked him for a light is grammatical, but *I as …
answered May 16 '12 by Colin Fine
5
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The traditional answer is that 'none' should be construed with a singular verb (the rationalisation I remember being given is that it is a contraction of 'no one'). Ordinary people usually ignore th …
answered Sep 28 '10 by Colin Fine
4
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You are right, for modern English. In Wycliffe's time, the oblique cases of "they" were "her" or "hir", and "hem". "Their" and "them" were not widespread, though I think they were used in some diale …
answered Jul 3 by Colin Fine
4
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Adjective and noun are not useful categories here. Mine and its like function as NP (noun phrases), while my etc function as determiners, that require a head (such as a noun) to form a NP.
answered Aug 25 '13 by Colin Fine
0
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Five is a quantifier, like some, few and most. When quantifiers are used to select part of a definitely specified subject (them or the cats), they require of (if you insist on talking about cases, thi …
answered May 25 '13 by Colin Fine

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