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A pronoun is a word that can function by itself as a noun phrase.

20
votes
The subordinate clause "who lied" is a red herring in this example. By that, I mean that "who lied" has no effect on the case of the main clause. In "who lied", who is getting nominative case. That …
answered Mar 24 '11 by Kosmonaut
15
votes
This is a classic example of overcorrection as a result of learning language rules at school. Accusative pronouns have had a tough run in the past 100 years in English. In school, we were always …
answered Aug 17 '10 by Kosmonaut
9
votes
Your sentence is grammatical as it stands, and having a single subject with two conjoined verb phrases is common in all forms of writing and understandable in general. However, the problem with eas …
answered Jul 7 '11 by Kosmonaut
10
votes
I believe that "it" in the case of "it's me" or "it's John" is an expletive. Like Coline Fine commented above, it is a syntactic placeholder, because in English we can't just say "is me/I am" or "is …
answered Aug 16 '10 by Kosmonaut
6
votes
pronouns to know that "me and John are going to the park" is informal and poor English, but not enough to be sure when "me" is okay to use. So "myself" is a way to avoid using "me". This avoidance has …
answered Oct 18 '10 by Kosmonaut
16
votes
You should probably consult a faculty member, or look at papers in your own field, in order to decide anything definitively. These kinds of conventions can vary within fields and subfields, so you sh …
answered Jan 25 '11 by Kosmonaut
7
votes
In English, we tend to really strongly favor attributing the possessor of body parts. (Why? It's hard to point to a real reason.) In any case, I find it interesting that there is a certain construc …
answered Aug 17 '10 by Kosmonaut
15
votes
I wonder if it is talking about this: With mass nouns, you have to use the singular. ("None of the wheat is...") With count nouns, you can use either the singular or the plural. ("None of …
answered Aug 19 '10 by Kosmonaut
7
votes
Here is a really easy way to deal with case and prepositions: If the the preposition is directly modifying the noun, then the noun is always* accusative/dative. And, since accusative and dative form …
answered Jan 4 '11 by Kosmonaut
43
votes
"Thy" is an English word that means "your" in the second person singular. English used to have a distinction between singular and plural in the second person, such that we had the following: Singul …
answered Aug 16 '10 by Kosmonaut
3
votes
My understanding was that pronouns are resolved syntactically, and so sentence 2 is semantically incorrect (unless the author really meant that the monkeys were ripe) and sentence 3 is not … ambiguous. Is this wrong? Yes, this is wrong. Intuitively, it is clear that none of these sentences are incorrect, and sentence 3 is ambiguous. Linguists who believe that pronouns are linked to their …
answered Dec 20 '10 by Kosmonaut