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This tag is for questions about morphology and syntax, the two elements of grammar. DO NOT USE THIS TAG IF YOUR QUESTION IS ABOUT WHETHER SOMETHING SPECIFIC IS GRAMMATICAL. For such cases use the 'grammaticality' tag. Also do not use this for punctuation or spelling (orthography); those are not about grammar, and they have their own tags.

4
votes
You are right that this use of there is related to there is, there was and similar constructions. This construction (There + verb + subject) can be used with verbs other than to be—not only with moda …
answered May 19 '11 by psmears
2
votes
The phrase is clumsy and unclear, but I wouldn't say it's actually incorrect. A better rendering might be: What are the factors that Twitter takes into account when deciding whether to open itself …
answered Jan 9 '11 by psmears
3
votes
"Wake up Joe" and "Wake Joe up" are both OK, and as you say the second flows better. But if a pronoun is used then the second form is not only better, it is compulsory: "Wake him up" works, but "*Wake …
answered Mar 7 '11 by psmears
12
votes
English doesn't really have a concept of direct versus indirect object in the same way. To answer the easy part of the question: both eat and help take direct objects in English. While there are som …
answered Apr 26 '11 by psmears
3
votes
Certainly the adverb can modify the sentence. Unfortunately the description above is rather unclear. Hopefully, though, you see from these examples that the adverb can modify the meaning of the senten …
answered Mar 20 '11 by psmears
7
votes
Both are acceptable, but the usage is slightly different. The following extensions to the sentence illustrate the most common usage: I doubt they will exchange the 20 inch monitor when I take it b …
answered May 18 '11 by psmears
11
votes
verb form goes is exclusively used for the third person. (That's more than enough about the use of the terms in grammar.) The same terms have been borrowed from grammar to describe certain types of …
answered Apr 7 '11 by psmears
6
votes
For sentences structured like the example - you are right, context (and pragmatics) are all: without any context to suggest otherwise, "buy" needs an object, so the object must be shared, and since "f …
answered Jun 6 '11 by psmears
9
votes
I'm not really sure what you mean by "dative" in English, as there isn't really an accusative/dative distinction - in situations where other languages might use a dative, either the accusative is used …
answered Jan 18 '11 by psmears
3
votes
If you want to modify "one-third" with an adverb, put it in front with no hyphen: That's nearly one third of the total. I've eaten easily one third of the cake. We're roughly one third o …
answered Feb 18 '11 by psmears
15
votes
OK, first let's take a look at what some grammar books say, then try to make it comprehensible with some examples: CGEL says: The infinitival is more associated with change, the gerund …
answered Apr 17 '11 by psmears
8
votes
It is grammatical (as far as it goes - I assume you're using it as part of a longer sentence!). It is also potentially ambiguous, as you say - it could be interpreted to mean the place where we made …
answered May 21 '11 by psmears
9
votes
First, note that "x is y" is not always logically equivalent to "y is x". For example, "Fools are my friends" is different from "My friends are fools" (because the first allows wise men to be my frien …
answered Jan 14 '11 by psmears