In the King James Version of the Bible, I Corinthians 11:24 says (emphasis mine): 

> And when he had given thanks, he ***brake*** it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me. >>I Cor 11:24 (KJV)

Why did the KJV translators use "brake" as the past tense for break instead of broke? Every other version/translation of the Bible uses "broke" in that verse. I tried googling brake but it only comes up with the typical definitions such as a brake on a car, not a past tense for break. And googling for the past tense for break also came up empty. 

I seem to recall hearing a long time ago that there was no real English translation for the unique type of conjugation used in the original text (Hebrew?); so they used brake. But I have no confirmation of that. 

Is there any insight to etymology of brake in this context and why KJV uses brake while every other translation uses broke?