Here's an article titled "[NBN rolling out FttDP to 700,000 premises, replacing Optus HFC footprint][1]":
> The National Broadband Network (NBN) company has announced that it
> will be replacing the Optus hybrid fibre-coaxial (HFC) footprint with
> its fibre-to-the-distribution-point (FttDP) network, with up to
> 700,000 premises to be covered by the new network technology. 

> ... 

> DOCSIS 3.1 -- currently due to be launched in the second half of
> 2017 -- would enable HFC users to reach speeds of 1Gbps down/100Mbps
> up.

> ...

> In terms of FttDP speeds, the VDSL box currently being used has the
> capability to deliver speeds of up to 500Mbps, **but**, once it is updated
> to a G.Fast box, **has** the capacity for 1Gbps.

In the last sentence, there are two main clauses connected with ***but***, and the verb ***has*** of the second main clause is in the simple present tense and denotes a scheduled future event.

Is this use of ***has*** grammatical or at least very unnatural?

What if ***has*** is replaced with ***gets***?
>In terms of FttDP speeds, the VDSL box currently being used has the capability to deliver speeds of up to 500Mbps, but, once it is updated to a G.Fast box, ***gets*** the capacity for 1Gbps.


In another question "[Very very confused! which verbs can be used in simple present tense for scheduled future events?][2]", the only answer there says, "Almost any action verb can be used in the present tense for a scheduled future event."

Does this mean that stative verbs such as ***has*** in the above article cannot generally be used in the present tense for a scheduled future event when used in a main clause?

  [1]: http://www.zdnet.com/article/nbn-rolling-out-fttdp-to-700000-premises-replacing-optus-hfc-footprint/
  [2]: https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/402228/very-very-confused-which-verbs-can-be-used-in-simple-present-tense-for-schedule