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Questions tagged [inflectional-morphology]

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Run or ran correct? [duplicate]

Ewes are pasture ran all year on grass. Or Ewes are pasture run all year on grass. Which is correct American English?
DDH's user avatar
  • 11
3 votes
1 answer
194 views

abǽde in context: which verb and inflectional form?

I'd like to know what verb and which inflectional form abǽde is in the sentence below. The passage is from one of Ælfric's homilies. A translation is available online, but it doesn't look literal ...
blokeman's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
54 views

What is the name for the form of the word "been" in the Past Perfect Continuous?

In the Past Perfect Continuous what is the name of the form of the word "been"? For example, I had made a form table like this: Subject aux verb verb -ing form I, she, he, it, you, we, ...
ingy's user avatar
  • 21
2 votes
1 answer
88 views

Why is the subjunctive mood considered tenseless? Is "would be able to" not explicitly a future (perfect) construction?

I've read through the responses on this question, but I don't feel like they address the idea that English subjunctive clauses lack inflection (per Wikipedia). I'm looking at this sentence, for ...
Bobadabebe Ih'tsaboih's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
64 views

What are the rules of inflection in making an idiom?

Although the following expressions may sound local or unnatural to some, these are examples of idiomatic expressions I hear in New York City. Does putting plural emphasis of a noun or comparative ...
wordsalad's user avatar
  • 415
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0 answers
138 views

Why do we use “more ADJECTIVE” and “less ADJECTIVE” with adjectives of more than one syllable? [duplicate]

I've asked this question in Quora and the answers I got were: First answer: Using "more" and "less" helps maintain clarity and consistency in comparative forms. It provides a ...
Stim Roe's user avatar
6 votes
6 answers
1k views

What tense is "He would never see her again"?

In the following passage, what tense is the second sentence? John said goodbye to his mother. He would never see her again. I know it's not the past tense, which would be "He never saw her ...
Adam Carr's user avatar
7 votes
4 answers
1k views

Is there any context in which the 2nd person singular and the 2nd person plural differ morphosyntactically?

As far as inflectional morphology is concerned, English isn't exactly a rich language. Still, the present-tense paradigm of the copular verb be shows that even English distinguishes between ...
Schmuddi's user avatar
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0 votes
0 answers
38 views

"Past" as a Verb [duplicate]

I have come across a sentence in a financial media website Investopedia, which reads, "Time-barred debt is typically debt that has past the statute of limitations and cannot be collected." ...
Stannis John's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
157 views

What mood is "if I were" in?

Wikipedia says about English subjunctive mood: In Modern English, the subjunctive is realised as a finite but tenseless clause where the main verb occurs in the bare form. Since the bare form is also ...
minseong's user avatar
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7 votes
5 answers
1k views

Why do we use two different verb forms for sentences like “that person is broke” versus “that person is broken”?

We usually use only a verb’s past participle when we need to make an adjective out of it, not its past tense—but not always. Sometimes we even use both forms but assign these two different meanings! ...
sen's user avatar
  • 81
6 votes
4 answers
4k views

Plural form of country names

Can all country names be pluralised in English? There are some countries which have a plural form, although such name is, for obvious reasons, not used - for example, Sicily - Sicilies (I know Sicily ...
Al-cameleer's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
51 views

How to unambiguously indicate inflections where letters are sometimes removed?

Consider a lexicon where you look up the words 'jump' and 'dance'. You would often see something like this: jump -s -ing, etc. dance -s -ing, etc. I reckon this notation (is there a name for it?) is ...
l33t's user avatar
  • 103
17 votes
3 answers
3k views

Can "believed" ever be an adjective?

The ti­tle ex­plains it all. I had an ar­gu­ment with my English teacher; she gave us a task to con­vert nouns to their cor­re­spond­ing ad­jec­tives and verbs. She gave us be­lief as the noun and ...
DarQ's user avatar
  • 189
3 votes
2 answers
727 views

Other than “to be”, what verbs in English change in the subjunctive past tense?

I recently found out that the reason we say ”if I were...” and not “if I was...” (though some argue both are correct) is because “to be” is irregular in the subjunctive past. Are there any other verbs ...
Aidan's user avatar
  • 173
0 votes
4 answers
326 views

General term for singularize and pluralize

I'm looking for a word (or small number of words) that is the general term for singularizing or pluralizing a word. I've thought about "inflection"/"inflect", but inflection ...
Henry Woody's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
5k views

Why isn't "giraves" the plural of "giraffe" like "wolves" is for "wolf"? [duplicate]

The plural of giraffe, according to Merriam Webster and some other dictionaries I checked, is "giraffes". Normally when the final sound of an English word is F, its plural ends in V sound. ...
user avatar
6 votes
2 answers
131 views

"Crossed-referenced", "Crashed-landed", and other twice-inflected verbs

For about a month now, I've been cataloging every compound verb I encounter that, for whatever reason, causes some people to inflect both of its components in the past tense (see title for examples). ...
Kyle O'Brien's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
219 views

Tireder (comparative form)

According to the CambridgeGEL, page 1583, Participial adjectives take only analytic comparative forms (A marginal exception is tired) What are the reasons leading to this exception?
GJC's user avatar
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2 answers
2k views

Is it ever correct to say "if I be..." in present-day English?

We are taught that in "type 0" and "type 1" conditional sentences, the tense of the condition clause (aka the "if" clause) should always be the normal present tense, as ...
Askeladd's user avatar
  • 762
2 votes
1 answer
404 views

Should this verb be in the third-person singular form, the infinitive form, or the present participle form? [duplicate]

Watching a game review, I've noticed a phrase whose meaning confused me. The reason why I got confused is that the author used a base form of the verb "to explore" in pair with the singular ...
Maxyeet's user avatar
  • 103
0 votes
0 answers
16 views

Is there any way, I can get to the brief history of any words or phrases?

It's hard to remember the word until I get to the history or until I feel the word. I'm wondering any apps or sites to help me out with this.
Harshit's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
871 views

Why is slain a past participle of slay? [duplicate]

Past participles in the English language usually end with -ed, but slain is one exception. Why can't we have just slayed rather than that and slain, too? And why can't slain be its very own verb? ...
Adamant's user avatar
  • 256
0 votes
1 answer
94 views

Why doesn’t the sentence "the standard of proof being one based on balance of probabilities" contain a verb?

The burden of proof is easier to discharge in a civil cases than in a criminal case, the standard of proof being one based on balance of probabilities. Why there is no verb in the latter sentence? Is ...
KIte's user avatar
  • 1
1 vote
3 answers
1k views

Why is borne a past participle of bear?

This is a question people seldom ask. In the English language, past participles are verbs that usually end with -ed. But bear is one exception. It has bore and borne as past participles, but not ...
Adamant's user avatar
  • 256
0 votes
1 answer
1k views

Plural forms of gerunds [duplicate]

In this sentence, the noun savings is in plural form: I have one savings account. It is like a gerund or maybe it is a gerund, I am not clear about it. But when I searched the Internet, I found ...
Jasbir singh's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
1k views

When to use "I" + is

Once I saw this sentence in the movie that: I is in charge of the classroom ! Why after "I" did they use "is" ? Is that a metaphor ? I wanted to explain this usage to my students ...
Dante Inferno's user avatar
8 votes
2 answers
3k views

Why did American English change certain past tense verb endings from ‑t to ‑ed but not others?

I always get “mad” (we don’t actually get upset with each other) at a friend of mine because he uses the UK versions for the past tense of verbs like spill or spell, saying spilt or spelt instead of ...
Elle Fromm's user avatar
10 votes
8 answers
2k views

There is no question that you will not misunderstand this sentence

The MacMillan Dictionary has the following definition for the phrase 'there is no question that': used for saying that something is definitely true It gives the example: There is no question ...
Shoe's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
399 views

Can "Targetings" be a plural form of "Targeting" as a noun?

I understand words like "surrounding" can be "surroundings", or "binding" can be "bindings". But is it appropriate with "targeting" as a noun? Here is a recent headline - "UN chief calls for probe ...
Arijit Dasgupta's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
164 views

A Inquiry About Infinitive-To and Its Role As A Subordinator or An Auxiliary

If you're interested in grammar, as I am, I am sure you have delved into a thought process about infinitive to, and like me, you have probably questioned what it is, or what it could be defined as. My ...
AJK432's user avatar
  • 420
6 votes
5 answers
7k views

What is the gram­mat­i­cal term for “‑ed” words like these?

In English we say things like: a cal­i­brated de­vice a dis­trib­uted prod­uct a founded com­pany a de­stroyed house Those ‑ed words there all sig­nify that some verb (here re­spec­tively cal­i­...
user56834's user avatar
  • 325
4 votes
1 answer
3k views

He/Him/His VS She/Her/Her

How did her become the female equivalent of both him and his instead of only being a possessive pronoun like his? Is there a reason? For example: She likes him and his dog. He likes her and her dog.
Sriracha Mayo's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
134 views

Shouldn't “some of the phenomenon” be plural?

The paragraph: Our team conducts fundamental research in Philosophy, trying to push the boundaries of what is possible with new techniques, and also trying to understand and formalize some of ...
gsamaras's user avatar
  • 515
2 votes
1 answer
2k views

Why do 'vomit/limit' use single 't' while emit/omit use double 't'? A study case of relations between etymology and verb inflections

One comment gave me a great link for musing the answer: "Focussed" or "focused"? Rules for doubling the last consonant when adding -ed However, my question is the rule in doubling ...
Flonne's user avatar
  • 349
-2 votes
1 answer
353 views

What is the difference between -en and {-en} in morphology notation?

So there is this question of the example: The referee has blown his whistle many times today. The question of the example above is, "What type of allomorph is in the past participle form of the word ...
user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
3k views

Why isn't 'oranger' correct even though it follows being a one- or two-syllable word for adding the comparative inflection?

So 'orange' is either can be a one- or two-syllable word, however it would incorrect to say something is "oranger". But why? It follows the rule of being adding the comparative {-er} but it is not ...
user avatar
7 votes
4 answers
5k views

Is the correct pronunciation of "Have you seen Mary's book" "Mary book"?

So there is this question about the pronunciation of the noun possessive inflection. A certain text states that a zero allomorph is used by certain American English speakers for the noun possessive ...
user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
96 views

Be we all here?

The passage below is taken from Life's Little Ironies by Thomas Hardy. My question concerns "Now be we all here?". I understand that it means "Now are we all here?". The writer might have left the ...
Enguroo's user avatar
  • 3,519
8 votes
4 answers
10k views

Insight into the pronunciation of the word algae?

Can anyone provide some insight into the pronunciation of the word algae? Various dictionaries give either the /g/ version as in gear or the /dʒ/ version as in jeep. For example: https://dictionary....
Kantura's user avatar
  • 621
3 votes
1 answer
174 views

Morphology, conversion type confusion! [closed]

I am currently doing an assignment. I am having difficulty understanding this phenomenon. If the verb "taking" is in a passage would it be considered a conversion process, as "taking" can also be a ...
Hamza Maher Abdurrahman's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
6k views

Is "-ed" an inflectional or derivational morpheme in "the stressed syllables"?

In the word "stressed" in the following sentence, is the -ed an Inflectional or a Derivational suffix? Would you please explain to me why? The sentence is: This is one of the stressed syllables. ...
User384789's user avatar
2 votes
4 answers
1k views

Does the “-s” change the word class of “it”? [closed]

The word it is a pronoun. When I add an s to it, does it change the word class? For example in the following sentence: The gift is still in its box. My questions are: Does the "S" change ...
mathlearner 's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
14k views

Is it correct to say "You be the best"? [closed]

This phrase is in constant use by many lately , just to appreciate a person in something. But I personally feel there's some problem in this - "You are the best" makes better sense. Is this even ...
Anandlogesh RR's user avatar
30 votes
6 answers
21k views

Is it true that English has no future tense?

I'm a native English speaker and I consider myself to have a very competent understanding of English grammar. Recently, I have started believing that there is no future tense in English grammar. ...
user avatar
0 votes
3 answers
733 views

Differentiating between verb-ing and gerunds [duplicate]

In sentences like, "I'm dying to get to you and "I'm learning to live again" and "i was preparing to go for surgery when you called" what are "dying", "learning" and "preparing" functioning as? Are ...
Tim2k20's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
1k views

Third person present and past in King James Bible

I am currently reading the Gospel According to John in a King James Version of the Bible, and I cannot understand the use of the third person singular in some of the verses: 1:38 Then Jesus turned, ...
Renato Reis 's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
1k views

Why do we need different auxiliary verbs ("is", "are", "am") for different pronouns? [duplicate]

What is the purpose of having different auxiliary verbs ("is", "are", "am") for different pronouns ("He", "You", "I"...) instead of simply using "is" for all pronouns? It seems like the pronoun always ...
user3054303's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
417 views

Does being in the accusative case guarantee the existence of a direct object?

I want to clear this matter up once and for all. Even though I have already asked a few questions on the site related to the nominative case and the accusative case, I still get confused by one ...
The NOVICE's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
116 views

When did the South start using the +es third person, present tense verb inflection in Middle English?

In Middle English the Northern speakers started using the +es inflection whilst the South continued to use the Old English form +eð/+eth. When did the South finally catch up with the North and use the ...
Abigael Clark's user avatar