Questions tagged [history]

Questions about the history and trends of the English language.

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43 votes
8 answers
8k views

Paucity of words for relationships

Please refer the following questions asked elsewhere on this site: Is there a word that means "the wife of one's brother"? What is the relationship name of my wife's brother to me? ...
Vaibhav Garg's user avatar
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63 votes
7 answers
33k views

When did it become correct to add an “s” to a singular possessive already ending in “‑s”?

According to my grammar book, but at variance to the answer to this question, the correct singular possessive if a word ends in ‑s is: James’s car The grammar book allows exceptions for historical ...
Andrew Stacey's user avatar
31 votes
7 answers
10k views

Why have the subjunctive and indicative converged in Modern English?

It is to me a curious fact that the subjunctive mood of verbs in English has so nearly disappeared in modern times. In fact, even the correct form and usage of the subjunctive in Modern English barely ...
Noldorin's user avatar
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51 votes
4 answers
48k views

Why doesn't "its" have an apostrophe?

I know that its is the possessive and it's is the contraction, and know when to use them. But why doesn't the possessive have an apostrophe? "The bear's eating a fish." [contraction] "The bear's ...
endolith's user avatar
  • 658
19 votes
4 answers
8k views

What is the history of adding the a- prefix to form words?

I have always found the a- prefix to words (as in anew, ajar, aside, awake, afoot, a-hunting, etc.) fascinating. The NOAD says on this topic: a- 2. prefix •to; toward : aside | ashore. • ...
F'x's user avatar
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38 votes
2 answers
44k views

Use of “f ” instead of “s” in historic, printed English documents

I was at a museum in London yesterday, and one of the items on exhibit is a document from the eighteenth century. It uses the letter f a lot where s should be used—for example, in Majefty. Did the ...
Paul Stovell's user avatar
31 votes
6 answers
13k views

19th century English texts occasionally use Germanic-style number words, such as "four-and-twenty". When did this fall out of use?

19th century English texts occasionally use Germanic-style number words, such as "four-and-twenty", but the same text would also have the modern "twenty-four" in places (see e.g. Conan-Doyle for ...
David Grellscheid's user avatar
41 votes
4 answers
15k views

How and when did American spelling supersede British spelling in the US?

Considering that Webster published his first dictionary in 1806, is there a recognised tipping point (year, decade, etc.) that marked the move from traditional British spelling to Webster's American? ...
coleopterist's user avatar
  • 30.9k
32 votes
3 answers
7k views

Why is there a distinction between "its" and "it's"?

While I know technically the English language has a distinction because when there's a conflict between the possessive form and a contraction, the contraction wins. That is: Its is the possessive ...
Billy ONeal's user avatar
  • 1,940
26 votes
4 answers
5k views

Why do written English vowels differ from other Latin-based orthographies?

Written English vowels differ from other Latin-based orthographies. Consider what the written vowels in the romance languages represent. Also, for example, consider this simple comparison between a ...
Charlie's user avatar
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64 votes
6 answers
23k views

What we've gelost — why doesn't English use the prefix "ge-"?

The Germanic languages that I'm familiar with all use a prefix similar to ge- on past participles: German: Ich habe mir den Fuß gebrochen. Dutch: Ik heb mijn voet gebroken. But English doesn't do ...
JSBձոգչ's user avatar
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13 votes
7 answers
16k views

When did the word "so" begin to be used to start a sentence?

In the last few years, I've noticed a growing usage of the word "so" to begin a sentence, especially in the context of higher education. For example: Interviewer: "What is the nature of your ...
Fred's user avatar
  • 810
9 votes
5 answers
2k views

progressive forms: participle or gerund?

Progressive forms of verbs consist of the form to be + participle. At least that is what most English grammars say or they are imprecise and speak of the -ing form. My question is what follows after ...
rogermue's user avatar
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16 votes
2 answers
160k views

Why is the plural of “deer” the same as the singular?

Why is the plural version of deer identical to the singular version? If mouse became mice, then why did the singular deer not change to something else in the plural?
khyati's user avatar
  • 169
136 votes
1 answer
15k views

Did English ever have a word for 'yes' for negative questions?

The Germans have doch and the French have si as a word that means "yes" in response to a negative question, such as: Don't you want some ice-cream? Yes [I do]! In English, we only have yes (as ...
Dancrumb's user avatar
  • 5,030
52 votes
6 answers
129k views

What is "won't" a contraction of?

"Don't", "wouldn't", "couldn't" and "isn't" are all contractions of "do not", "would not", "could not" and "is not"... So what's "won't" a contraction of? It appears to be "will not", but if so, why ...
Django Reinhardt's user avatar
40 votes
6 answers
4k views

Pronunciation of the English alphabet

Why are there inconsistencies in the pronunciation of the consonants of the alphabet? For example: 'b' is pronounced like 'bee' but 'm' is pronounced as 'em' rather than 'me'. The pronunciation of 'h' ...
dave's user avatar
  • 3,745
31 votes
5 answers
56k views

Is "from whence" correct? Or should it be "whence"?

I just saw a parody on the Lord of the Rings, where one of the characters says: it must be cast back in the fire from whence it came! This struck me as odd, since I expected them to say "whence it ...
Martijn's user avatar
  • 539
11 votes
4 answers
22k views

Why does "ow" have two different sounds

Why is it that the "ow" in now makes the /aʊ/ sound while "ow" in snow makes the /oʊ/ sound? Has this always been, was it spelled differently and then changed, or was it spelled this way but the sound ...
Bob Roberts's user avatar
40 votes
6 answers
11k views

How did "Jew" become pejorative?

For some reason, the word Jew often carries a pejorative or offensive connotation, which the related adjective Jewish does not carry. This is most obvious when either word is used as an attributive: ...
JSBձոգչ's user avatar
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34 votes
4 answers
16k views

Why did only English undergo the Great Vowel Shift, making pronunciation stray so far from spelling?

Lots of people have wondered why English seems to be one of very few languages with such irregular spelling, far from its pronunciation. The answers include the Norman invasion, and the Great Vowel ...
Stefan Monov's user avatar
  • 1,113
2 votes
4 answers
32k views

Why are "put" and "but" different in their pronunciation?

"Put" and "but" both end in the same letters, so why don't they rhyme? Did they start out with the same sound, and then one of them changed? Or did they start out with different sounds, and just got ...
Language's user avatar
85 votes
5 answers
185k views

If the letter J is only 400–500 years old, was there a J sound that preceded the design of the letter?

I understand that the letter "J" is relatively new — perhaps 400–500 years old. But since there has long been important names that begin with J, such as Jesus, Joshua, Justinian, etc., and which ...
Bruce James's user avatar
  • 3,206
63 votes
8 answers
8k views

Why does legal English continue to remain archaic?

Perhaps this is a question for Law.SE if one exists, but I am asking here as there are other nice questions on English history. There is some historical development account presented in Wikipedia, ...
Bravo's user avatar
  • 16k
30 votes
3 answers
49k views

How does the "be-" prefix change the words to which it is applied? How did it come about?

What does the be- prefix change when applied to adjectives and verbs? There are many such words that seemed to be coined of this process, for example: behold, beget, befallen, beridden, bedazzled, ...
Uticensis's user avatar
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26 votes
3 answers
18k views

Why don't English nouns have grammatical gender?

English nouns — other than those with natural gender, e.g. people or animals — do not generally have grammatical gender, and so are referred to as 'it' rather than 'he' or 'she'. However, modern ...
Steve Melnikoff's user avatar
16 votes
5 answers
9k views

Rhyme in Elizabethan sonnets

In sonnets from the Elizabethan period, "move" rhymed with "love" although they don't today. Recognizing that changes in spelling rarely keep up with changes in pronunciation, how were "move" and "...
holly's user avatar
  • 161
15 votes
6 answers
11k views

When and how did "momentarily" come to mean "in a moment", rather than "for a moment"?

"Momentarily" used to mean "for a moment" only, and not "in a moment". Thus, newscasters could be divided into two clear groups: those who would say "we'll be back momentarily," and those who would ...
Dynrepsys's user avatar
  • 464
14 votes
4 answers
4k views

Capitalization of the word universe

Playing around with Google's Ngram viewer, where you can see how many times a word is used in books, I stumbled on this: It shows how often universe and Universe have been used in books. I think it'...
MikeHelland's user avatar
13 votes
2 answers
2k views

Can an English sentence have a 'dative subject'?

I have been thinking about this for a while. It seems to me that, sometimes, the subject plays a dative role in that it is the recipient of something. Take the following active sentence. He gave ...
Anonym's user avatar
  • 1,714
12 votes
3 answers
23k views

Were contractions less common in olden days?

We just viewed the new movie True Grit. The language of the characters was more formal sounding than we are used to, largely because of the absence of contractions. Is this historically accurate? Do ...
user avatar
57 votes
4 answers
200k views

Why use the word "copy" in "do you copy that"?

I notice "do you copy that?" is used in movies to ask for confirmation in telephone/interphone conversation. I only know copy means make things duplicated, so why use it in "do you copy that"? Is ...
LiuYan 刘研's user avatar
33 votes
3 answers
21k views

“Fire” a weapon before firearms existed?

Did the verb “fire a weapon” exist before the actual introduction of firearms on battlefields? More specifically, does it make sense for a creative work to have archers (or whatever ranged weaponry) ...
Socce's user avatar
  • 477
31 votes
4 answers
5k views

Why did the letter “o” disappear in the word “pronunciation”?

The verb pronounce has the letter o in its second syllable, but in the noun pronunciation, that same letter disappears from the corresponding position. Why is that?
cuSK's user avatar
  • 1,299
30 votes
2 answers
20k views

What causes the pronunciation "nucular"?

What is the name of the phonetic shift behind the common mispronunciation of the word nuclear (nucular)? Or, if the answer is "none", then I would appreciate learning the origin of the pronunciation.
cwallenpoole's user avatar
  • 1,027
30 votes
2 answers
7k views

What is the name for the process which turned "iced cream" into "ice cream"?

There are several words (mostly related to food) which are shortenings of their historical forms. For example, the cold treat ice cream was originally known as iced cream in the 1680s. The -ed ending ...
simchona's user avatar
  • 33.5k
25 votes
1 answer
6k views

What are the historical reasons for the conventional sequence of footnote symbols?

According to @Mahnax's answer to this question, the Chicago Manual of Style Online states that the correct sequence of footnote symbols is as follows: * (asterisk; but do not use if p values occur ...
user avatar
24 votes
5 answers
187k views

Where does "ta!" come from?

Where does the expression "ta" come from? Wikipedia has only this to say: "ta!", slang, Exclam. Thank you! {Informal}, an expression of gratitude but no additional information or links about its ...
Pekka's user avatar
  • 1,996
21 votes
3 answers
43k views

What is the name of this castle part?

What do you call these? Please provide a reliable source with your answer.
user avatar
15 votes
2 answers
9k views

What makes a word offensive?

Whilst I was sat on the bus yesterday, I overheard a group of teenagers discussing various things. As per the usual social requirement at that age, every 5th word was an expletive. Not exactly the ...
Polynomial's user avatar
  • 1,024
13 votes
3 answers
2k views

Where did the practice of using apostrophes for possessive nouns but not pronouns originate?

Where did the practice of using apostrophes for possessive nouns but not pronouns originate? For example, possessive nouns (both proper and common) are written with a apostrophe before the final s: ...
ctype.h's user avatar
  • 408
10 votes
2 answers
2k views

Why can't "thanks" ever be singular as a noun?

While looking at the part of speech of the noun "thanks" in an online dictionary I noticed that it was a plural noun and wondered if it could be used in singular form. Glancing at the origin it ...
slyfin's user avatar
  • 303
10 votes
6 answers
4k views

Has "dilemma" ever been restricted to two options?

I was surprised to discover my dictionary had this entry for dilemma: a situation in which a difficult choice has to be made between two or more alternatives, esp. equally undesirable ones The ...
MrHen's user avatar
  • 35.6k
1 vote
1 answer
1k views

Which English words feature reduction of diphthongs like /eɪ/ to /i/?

Consider the following examples: karaoke as /ˈkæ.ɹiˌəʊ.ki/ Israel as /ˈɪz.ɹi.əl/ al-Qaida as "alky aida" Monday as "mundy" Friday as "fridy" and possibly: Capernaum as /kəˈpɜːɹ.ni.əm/ Sinai as /...
J. Siebeneichler's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
1k views

Reform of English writing? [closed]

As is commonly known, English is quite notorious for having a writing system that is far removed from the actual way it is most commonly pronounced. I understand that there are important historical ...
Spatz's user avatar
  • 75
243 votes
11 answers
19k views

What is the factual basis for "pirate speech"? (Did pirates really say things like "shiver me timbers"?)

The "pirate speech" we hear/see/read, for example, on the website Talk Like A Pirate Day consists of a rhotic dialect characterized by phrases like "shiver me timbers," "ooh arh me hearties," and so ...
user avatar
68 votes
7 answers
7k views

How come 'ou' was reduced to 'o' in the US?

Americans write color and favorite, when others say colour and favourite. How/why did this happen?
tshepang's user avatar
  • 1,383
55 votes
7 answers
142k views

What did "google" mean in the 1900s?

I know that Google got its name from the word googol (10100), and that Google/google referring the search engine/using the search engine are recent additions to the dictionary. Their definitions are ...
yoozer8's user avatar
  • 8,770
24 votes
3 answers
11k views

Why did Old Testament scholars choose to employ "to know" in a sexual sense?

For those of us not familiar, the verb to know once had an archaic sexual sense, often found in the Old Testament, and as illustrated in the following story found in Genesis 19: 4 But before they ...
Uticensis's user avatar
  • 21.7k
19 votes
7 answers
5k views

Why doesn't English have a separate word for "head hair"? (head hair vs. body hair)

The answer can be "Because it doesn't!" or "It wasn't needed!" in short but there might be a historical or linguistic explanation behind this. (Of course, every language might be lacking a word that ...
ermanen's user avatar
  • 62.6k

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