Over the years, I've heard people say 'v-ē-ə', 'v-ī-ə', and sometimes the 'uh' is an 'ah' sound. (edit- It has come to my attention that 'via' was once a 'wee-ah' from Latin, but I don't feel like this helps my question. If anything, that just makes me wonder why there is that variation in the beginning 'ē' and 'ī'.)

Now, I'm guessing the difference between 'uh' and 'ah' may just be regional, but that doesn't explain the first part of such a teeny word.

This has been driving me nuts for awhile. I've tried online dictionaries, asking English teachers, and they all are the reason (as well as TV and movies) for why I'm still clueless. (As for the English teachers over my years of schooling, all of them agree to disagree with how it is said. I have one teacher saying 'no' to 'vee-uh' and one saying yes to that way and vice versa.) As for the dictionaries, they can mention the two variations but they don't explain why.


I guess the reason why I had been confused is because I didn't understand why there was a disagreement about how 'via' is pronounced. Can anyone shine some light on this as well? (I do appreciate the answers I received before I edited my question, but now they are insufficient.)

  • Is it appropriate to pronounce it both ways or is only one way correct?
  • Also, where did these variations come from? (Via is Latin, yes. However, in Latin, it only had one way of pronouncing it. In English, there are two variants that are questionably debatable, and that is what this question is asking about.)
  • 1
    Don't forget about the "Vee" vs "Wee"- it is Latin after all.
    – Jim
    Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 1:07
  • 1
    When you're not under authority, say it any way you like. When you're with a teacher, say it the way he tells you to. If you can get two of them in one conversation, say it any way, and say it the way the one left standing says it. Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 1:08
  • 1
    @Jim And because it is an ablative, in Latin it should have a long a
    – Henry
    Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 1:15
  • 3
    It doesn't have a definite pronunciation. I have a definite pronunciation, which is /vi:ə/. Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 1:17
  • 2
    @Jim Also, many Vulgar Romans seem to have said /βi:aː/. Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 1:23

5 Answers 5


This all comes back to the traditional English pronunciation of Latin, where a long or stressed “i” came to be pronounced with the /aɪ/ diphthong, as in horizon and saliva, or miasma and hiatus. You can see this phenomenon at work in the town of Salida, Colorado, where the English-speaking locals now pronounce their town’s name /səˈlaɪdə/, instead of using the original Spanish-language pronunciation of /saˈliða/.

So depending on which part of speech it is, and the degree of assimilation, there are two distinct possibilities for the pronunciation of via in English:

  1. /ˈvaɪə/ (let’s call this the “English” pronunciation)
  2. /ˈviːə/ (let’s call this the “Italian” pronunciation)

However, that does not mean they are necessarily interchangeable, as there is some distinction here between the noun and the preposition. The preposition is more likely than the noun to have an English diphthong in it; that is, to use the first pronunciation, the “English” one. The noun is much more often these days to be of the second, “Italian” pronunciation. This may be because most “vias” one encounters are from Latin, Italian, or Spanish, where the word is still used.

For example, in Louisville, Colorado, there is a road named “Via Appia Way” [Google map]. (Yes, its first and last words mean the same thing.) That road always gets the second pronunciation here, never the first. However, when speaking of a bus or taxi route that went “via Via Appia”, one might well use the first pronunciation on the first of those two words and the second on the second, making its route run /ˈvaɪə ˈviːə ˈæpiːə/. No one here ever says /ˈvaɪə ˈvaɪə ˈeɪpiːə/ making it sound like English across the board.

Similarly, “foreign” (unassimilated) terms like the Via Dolorosa and the Via Lactea (that is, the original Milky Way), or places that have a road named Gran Vía, always have the “Italian” pronunciation, not the “English” one. That is why you have Coloradans saying their Via Appia that way.

On the other hand, a viaduct is always and without exception a /ˈvaɪədʌkt/ in English. Other, less common words that work this “English” way include:

  • Something that is viable is always /ˈvaɪəb(ə)l/, and the derived viability that accompanies it is always /vaɪəˈbɪlɪtɪ/.
  • The trade-name Viagra is /vaɪˈægrə/, rhyming with Niagara Falls’ /naɪˈægrə/, but more “viably”.
  • A vial is always a /ˈvaɪəl/, even(!) when somewhat archaically spelled phial (which, after Stephen, is the only other word in English whose ph is invariably /v/).
  • A viator, meaning a wayfarer, has the somewhat unusual double-diphthonged pronunciation /vaɪˈeɪtər/.
  • The Ecclesiastical term viatica /vaɪˈætɪkə/ is the plural of singular viaticum /vaɪˈætɪkəm/. A viaticum is the Eucharist given during Last Rites, or more generally, moneys or provisions given for travelling.
  • Viands, a fancy name for provisions or victuals (“viddles”), are /ˈvaɪəndz/.
  • The rare viameter is /vaɪˈæmɪtər/ (for its meaning, think odometer or pedometer), which has a feminine rhyme with diameter /daɪˈæmɪtər/.
  • The pronunciation of viaggiatory is unrecorded, and it is not a common word. Perhaps /vaɪˈædʒəˌtorɪ/, or if you are feeling especially naughty, even /ˈvædʒəˌtorɪ/.

That’s because when stressed and assimilated, spellings like via‑ and vio‑ have a /ˈvaɪə/ sound, like in violin or violence. Only in unassimilated terms like violino piccolo do you normally get the “Italian” pronunciation. Normally, a word needs to have a ‑veo‑ spelling in English for the /viːə/ pronunciation to prevail, as in alveolar or foveola.

  • I say ˈviːə in general and so rhyme Via Appia, but /ˈvi:ə ˈviːə ˈæpiːə/ would be too much. I'd say 'the DASH route'.
    – Mitch
    Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 13:40
  • @Mitch: Actually, Via and Appia never rhyme, because they have differing stress and syllable counts: VI-a with two syllables and APP-i-a with three, and the VI stress not matching the APP stress. Right? I suppose non-rhotics might rhyme via with keyer and pee-er, and Appia with happier and snappier. But I can’t. :)
    – tchrist
    Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 14:02
  • My (very small) point was that I pronounce 'via' as ˈviːə (your #2), and 'Via Appia' to rhyme, not knowing what is standard.
    – Mitch
    Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 14:48
  • @Mitch I also actually always use ˈviːə for via, but recognize that historically, it was often otherwise.
    – tchrist
    Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 14:58
  • 1
    Thanks for the comparison with related words. I have always said /ˈvaɪə/ and had always assumed that /ˈviːə/ was an attempt to give 'continental' values to borrowed words. I say 'a priori' with English diphthongs /ˌeɪ praɪˈɔːraɪ/ but I also hear it with continental values /ˌɑː prɪˈɔːri/.
    – Peter
    Commented Aug 6, 2015 at 8:11

Naturally, there is no such thing as one correct pronunciation variant.

The LPD-3 has some interesting data for (British) English:

vaɪə 88% (born before 1942 - 92%)

vi:ə 12%


I have always heard it "vee-ah" (except in Latin, where it is "wee-ah"). However, searching for some pronunciations online, I was shocked to hear the majority of them say "vy-ah"/"v-eye-ah":

Personally, I prefer "vee-ah", but Merriam-Webster lists both

\ˈvī-ə, ˈvē-ə\ 

so I guess either is correct.


This might be a Br/Am English difference.

Collins only lists one pronunciation, unless you specify their American English dictionary, then it lists both.

My Apple’s on-board dictionary (New Oxford American Dictionary) lists both, as does CDO’s American English Dictionary.

Oxford’s online dictionaries show the same pattern: their American version shows two pronunciations, while their British edition only shows one.

As for what your teachers said, it’s beyond me how teachers can claim one is right and the other wrong, when reputable dictionaries explicitly list both pronunciations (at least here in the U.S.).

  • 1
    It might help if you mentioned which pronunciation was the one in British dictionaries. Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 11:15
  • 1
    @PeterShor: I figured the links would suffice, but Collins says ˈvaɪə and Oxford says ˈvʌɪə, which I believe corresponds to what the O.P. said was 'v-eye-uh'.
    – J.R.
    Commented Nov 2, 2012 at 11:19

In Los Angeles, CA, either vee-uh or vy-uh is totally acceptable. I say vee-uh but I've got friends my age who say it the other way.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.