I can understand the causative form (quite less frequently, we simply say causal verb) with make and get but when used with have/has, it sometimes makes me think differently. Of course, I can understand the construction like the following.
- I had a barber cut my hair yesterday.
In its passive form, it can be written as
- I had my hair cut yesterday (by a barber).
I can also understand that the preceding sentence (passive construction) cannot be rewritten as follows.
- I had cut my hair yesterday.
If it's modified in this way then both the sentences have a significant difference in meaning that I can understand.
The thing I don't understand properly when a bare infinitive is replaced with an infinitive in such kind of constructions, such as.
- He has his wife cook dinner for him.
What happens, if the bare infinitive i.e cook is replaced with an infinitive like the following.
- He has his wife to cook dinner for him.
At a glance, you will be able to understand the difference between them but for me, it's not English but it's my native language in which as far as I know there is no difference between these two sentences and even the causative construction is simply made by just using some suffixes to the main verb in a sentence. So please take it easy. Could you please expose the important difference between these preceding two sentences?
