I got a translation assignment where I am to use UK English but with -ize spelling.

The European Union switched from -ize to -ise some years ago in its English language publications, meaning that -ize spellings are found in older legislative acts and -ise spellings in more recent ones.

Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_and_British_English_spelling_differences#-ise.2C_-ize_.28-isation.2C_-ization.29

The wikipedia link is interesting.

Apparently -ize used in British English is used in Oxford publications (which refuse -ise) even though -ise seems to be preferred in Australia and New Zealand and UK itself (3:2 ratio).

What are your thoughts on this. Is using UK English with -ize spelling the right or wrong way to approach it?

And is -ize prevalent in US English?

P.S.: I'm not a native speaker, these things are not obvious to me.

closed as not constructive by RegDwigнt Sep 28 '12 at 14:56

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  • +1 Good points. The scope seems too broad, I'm afraid the question is not to the point. – Kris Sep 28 '12 at 14:54
  • Thank you. How could I ask this question without being subject to an heated debate? I sincerely want to know. Perhaps I could try again asking the question again if that is alright. – João Paulo Sep 28 '12 at 14:58
  • We need to be specific -- one point to be answered in one post. 'Is -ize prevalent in US English?' -- OK. 'What are your thoughts on this?' -- Not OK on ELU. 'Is using UK English with -ize spelling the right or wrong way to approach it?' -- Not OK on ELU. (I think so.) – Kris Sep 28 '12 at 15:11

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