You have the right to ask for someone in the United States of America.
- Does it have any grammatical errors?
- Does it even make sense? I think it is usually ...to ask for someTHING ...not someONE
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Yes, the sentence is grammatically correct. It is, however, ambiguous; it may mean You have the right to ask to speak to someone who is in the USA (as opposed, perhaps, to someone in a call centre), or it may mean One of the freedoms this country guarantees is the right to ask to speak to somebody (as in JRs comment: this is deliberately rude). And you are right that it is usually to ask for something rather than someone, but that has very little to do with good English.
Yes, it is grammatically correct, and given your comment concerning the context, it now makes sense.
What it means is that you have the right to request a customer service representative who is from the United States, as opposed to someone from India or another country where the accent may be nearly impossible for an American to understand.