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While reading his books in English for the first time a while back, I was shocked by how ultra-concise the language was in the original language. Perhaps the most frustrating part was his extremely infrequent use of the comma. It can be annoying when it's overused, but he really takes it way too far into the other direction, stretching or passing the outer bounds of correct grammar/punctuation.

I have just read part of his last will, where he was apparently the author of the text and did not just have somebody else type it in based on his voice:

I give my library and all my manuscripts typescripts notes and all other articles connected with my work as an author ... to allow my son Christopher full access to the same in order that he may act as my Literary Executor with full power to publish edit alter rewrite or complete any work of mine which may be unpublished at my death or to destroy the whole or any part or parts of any such unpublished works as he in his absolute discretion may think fit and subject thereto

Source: Did Tolkien give his son explicit permission to publish all that unfinished material?

The "publish edit alter rewrite" part looks downright wrong to me. How can this part possibly not have commas and still be valid? And why would somebody want to write it like that even if it's somehow technically correct (which I'm not at all convinced of yet)?

Why didn't he type:

full power to publish, edit, alter, rewrite or complete

or:

full power to publish/edit/alter/rewrite/complete

? The last version has even fewer symbols and is thus shorter. Why was this list of words separated only by spaces chosen by somebody who was obsessed with languages?

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    Are you really asking us to explain what was in Tolkien's mind as he wrote those words?
    – Robusto
    Commented Jul 1 at 16:32
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    @Robusto No, but whether or not it's right. It seemed like a reasonable question title.
    – Gollum Nicehobbit
    Commented Jul 1 at 16:41
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    ...part of his last will. A Will is a legal document, not prose. Please see Punctuation in Wills
    – Weather Vane
    Commented Jul 1 at 17:03
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    Apparently, it's usual to drop many commas when writing wills. You need a couple of examples from other writings of Tolkien.
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Commented Jul 1 at 17:42
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    "How can this part possibly not have commas and still be valid?": It is valid because even though it is punctuated unconventionally (through the omission of punctuation), you and I and everyone know that it is a list of verbs, and its meaning is perfectly clear. Or did you have some other sense of "valid" in mind?
    – phoog
    Commented Jul 1 at 22:11

2 Answers 2

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The form of the will is in "legalese", which, for reasons of tradition, abhors commas. It is more than likely that the terms of the will were discussed between Tolkien and the drafter and the drafter wrote Tolkien's wishes out in a way that the probate department or a court (or whoever) would approve of.

It says nothing of Tolkien's use of commas.

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You'll find this question and answer in Stack Exchange's English Language and Usage. Are commas considered superfluous in legal documents?

This isn't about tradition, it's about avoiding ambiguity.

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