Just read this on Quora:

Yes, it is true that historically, pronouncing the "wh" digraph as just "w" was considered substandard speech in English.

The question is: when, exactly, did this change? In the 19th Century? In the early 20th Century? After World War Two?

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    – tchrist
    Dec 13, 2023 at 13:27
  • Are you asking about England or the United States? It might make a big difference. Dec 13, 2023 at 20:01
  • @PeterShor: Either. "Some Southern states ... blah-blah-blah," "some regions" - which? When?
    – Ricky
    Dec 13, 2023 at 20:17
  • 1
    Do you have any evidence that it actually was considered substandard? Did the Quora person give any sources? I can't read the full post on Quora because you have to give them your firstborn (register) to do that. Based on what I can see, it's only a guess based on the fact that it was different and different pronunciations are usually frowned upon (although some are considered legitimate variations). If you don't know if it's true, you should try and establish that first before seeking a date. And if you do know it's true, put the evidence in the question.
    – Stuart F
    Dec 13, 2023 at 21:31
  • @StuartF: I tried to do everything you just mentioned. When none of it worked, I posted the question here.
    – Ricky
    Dec 13, 2023 at 21:52

1 Answer 1


In my judgment, based on the world in which I interact, this hasn’t happened yet.

  • This still varies regionally. See "wine-whine merger".
    – GEdgar
    Dec 13, 2023 at 19:15

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