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Like the multiple pronunciations of "ough" or different spellings for the same sounds in English I've read come from mixing different dialects into one language. Whereas with French, they imposed on centralized set of rules. Or in Spanish, there are multiple languages/dialects in Spain (though I think at least Franco did try to impose Castellano for all). And other countries have their own histories of language homo/heterogeneity routes taken.

What made English turn out the way it did, as opposed to others?

In other words, did England ever try to impose one set of rules on how to say written letter combinations (e.g. 'ough'), like other languages have done, one way or another?

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    In French, ô, au, aux, eau, eaux, haut, hauts, ho, and aulx are all pronounced the same. Maybe you shouldn't complain quite as much about "different spellings for the same sounds." (In French, it is true that if you know the spelling of a word, you have a pretty good guess at how it's pronounced.)
    – Peter Shor
    Aug 15 at 18:57
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    I think you're missing the point and only proving my example. Are those words you gave each pronounced differently? Or always the same way?
    – user485570
    Aug 15 at 18:59
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    FYI talking about how language works is not complaining. If you think that, why are you here.
    – user485570
    Aug 15 at 18:59
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    These words are all pronounced exactly the same.
    – Peter Shor
    Aug 15 at 18:59
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    I think you'll find variations in the way that French and Spanish are pronounced across the world, just as with English.
    – Weather Vane
    Aug 15 at 19:04

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The simple answer is that English spelling has not been kept up to date. It was more regular (although not standardized) in Middle English.

Also, the standardization of English spelling did not occur in a very systematic manner. Samuel Johnson’s dictionary, while an impressive accomplishment, was the work of one man and its spellings did not always follow consistent principles. As the linked article mentions, the spellings followed in Johnson's dictionary often were based on a principle of trying to bring the spelling of an English word close to the spelling of the Latin root that was thought to be related to it, but since not all English vocabulary is from Latin, this principle cannot be applied to all words.

Spanish spelling, in contrast, has undergone reform more frequently, more systematically, and more recently.

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    I don't think English spelling has been regular since Old English.
    – Peter Shor
    Aug 16 at 18:33
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    Excellent concise answer that will not be appreciated by the OP (who has left). Minor quibble... Johnson was the manager and primary writer but he had six assistants, so it was not the 'work of one man'.
    – Mitch
    Aug 16 at 20:52