John Steinbeck, Travels with Charley (1962):
"That discussion, however, did not go into the life span of journeys. This seems to be variable and unpredictable. Who has not known a journey to be over and dead before the traveller returns? The reverse is also true: many a trip continues long after movement in time and space have ceased."
Why did Steinbeck use "have (ceased)" in the above quote rather than "has (ceased)," which is the third-person singular present form of the (auxiliary) verb and agrees with the person of the subject of the clause "movement," which is an uncountable noun?
I supposed, judging from the use of the rather archaic literary expression "Many a...," as well as the placement of the sentence being after a colon, making it stand out from the rest of the text, that the verb "have" is in the present subjunctive mood, which is also an archaic literary expression, as in the following older examples:
- The Magazine of Science, and School of Arts Volume 3 (1842): "If it be exposed to heat , after it have undergone this change, it swells up...."
- Australia and New Zealand (1876): “even after he have maintained himself for some weeks in each year....”
- The Lutheran Witness Volumes 3-5 (1884): “and Grasshopper he never put up food for winter; and so when winter come and he got nothing to eat....”
- Come winter, we'll have to pay a good deal more for vegetables and fruit. ['When winter comes,...']
Is my conjecture correct? If not, for what else reason did Steinbeck use "have"? Could it be some form of ellipsis or a simple case of typo?