Disclaimer - I have very little knowledge of semantics, and I am mostly just a phonetics enthusiast. Thus, my question and the way I explain it may be unprofessional or may lack linguistic rigor.
I'm a teenager, and I'm from the American Midwest. One feature famously characteristic of discourse in the Midwest and central United States is the use of the phrase "you guys" as a second-person plural pronoun. As a Chicagoan, I can confirm that this phrase is indeed quite common, as opposed to the rarer "y'all" (Southern connotation) and "you all." A simple "you" is still possible.
The word "guy" of course has historically had a gendered connotation, applying specifically to males. However, I wonder if it can be reasonably claimed that the plural form "guys" and modified forms such as "you guys" and "those guys" have lost their gendered nature.
Like the masculine third-person plural pronouns in Romance languages ("Ils" for French), "you guys" can be used to refer to a mixed-gender group. I assume this is a well-established usage. However, I think the phrase has lost its gender specificity enough that the gender of the group may not even matter. I think there are many situations in which calling a group of women or girls "you guys" might be considered perfectly normal - although I don't know if everyone, especially people from other parts of the US and the Anglosphere, would agree. I think it would be only slightly less normal to refer to an exclusively female group with a phrase like "those guys."
You can also say something like "Guys, it's raining outside" to a group of women or girls. I am guessing this has something to do with "guys" being placed in the vocative case, acting almost like an interjection. However, the situation is probably a bit more nuanced and complex.
The genderlessness does not seem to extend to the singular form, "guy." In some cases, a person might default to "guy" to refer to a hypothetical person or a person whose gender is unknown, but typically the word would only refer to a male.
My uneducated analysis of this situation leads me to the tentative claim that while "guys" still has a clear gender connotation, it has essentially lost its gendered function when modified with an initial word like "you" or (slightly less so) "those" or when in the vocative case. However, it maintains genderedness in other cases or in the singular form.
I am wondering the extent to which it can be said that these terms have lost their gendered definitions in American English, and what the proper way of classifying this shift might be.