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For example, Francis Bacon (1625):

enter image description here

I want to quote Bacon verbatim (without any "conversion" to modern English). Should I quote the above as

  1. "And Studies themselues, doe giue forth"; or
  2. "And Studies themselves, doe give forth"?

(On a similar note, I think the long s should just be quoted as the modern regular s instead of ſ. But correct me if I'm mistaken.)

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    Certainly you should reproduce 'long s' as a regular 's' (not 'f' as some people do!). My feeling is that the 'u' for 'v' is also just a typesetting convention and not a spelling.
    – Kate Bunting
    Jan 11 at 9:03
  • If there is no conversion at all, then it should be obvious that "u" is "u". If you are willing to consider "u" an allograph of "v", then perhaps you could write "v" instead. You need to provide more information about what you consider to be "conversion". As this question is written, we can only guess about your intentions.
    – MarcInManhattan
    Jan 12 at 5:28
  • It depends on your purpose. To reproduce the text In the same typography, or to use modern typography with a brief indication of the necessary changes you have made? Your choice.
    – Anton
    Jan 12 at 8:17

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