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I've found a few similar questions here, but I'm still not sure in this specific case if there should be a preference for using the word arise or arises:

Originally proposed before BCS theory as a phenomenological (i.e. non-microscopic) description of type-I superconductors, Ginzburg–Landau theory was later shown by Gor’Kov [5] to be derivable within the framework of BCS theory. It is generally applicable to both type-I and -II superconductors close to their critical temperatures, although it is sometimes successfully applied to situations much below this. From it arise two material-specific equations that are important to the superconductor choice in many quantum technologies:

To me, arise feels a bit more natural here since I'm talking about one theory and so I feel this should take a singular verb, although Grammarly seems insistent that this should be arises (presumably due to the object being plural). Could someone please clarify which I should be using and why?

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  • Arise is intransitive. Why are you pretending an intransitive verb has an object?
    – tchrist
    Dec 30, 2022 at 15:46
  • Please do not answer in comments. Answers go in the answer box.
    – Andrew Leach
    Dec 30, 2022 at 16:21
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    @tchrist because apparently my English isn't good enough to know this; I'm not 'pretending' anything. Hence my question. Dec 30, 2022 at 17:36

1 Answer 1

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For convenience, the sentence in question (minus some parts that aren't relevant here) is:

From it arise two material-specific equations.

The subject of the sentence is "two material-specific equations," which is plural, so the verb, "arise," also needs to be plural (which it is). The sentence is already written correctly, and changing the verb form to "arises" would make it wrong.

The phrase "from it" is merely an argument which is a prepositional phrase. There is no object.

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  • Thank you for your answer. I think part of my confusion is that 'arises' is the third person present form of arise, but I now understand that this is the base form and so should be 'arise', as you state. I'll leave this question open a bit longer in case anyone has anything additional to add but otherwise mark this as the accepted answer. Dec 30, 2022 at 17:51
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    @TobyHawkins It's not the base form, but the 3 person plural form. The point is that "from it" is not the subject but a preposed complement of "arise". The subject is the plural NP "two material-specific equations ...", hence the plural verb "arise".
    – BillJ
    Dec 30, 2022 at 18:00
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    I think you might want to mention subject/verb inversion here: Two material-specific equations arise from it. Now, you can see why arise is plural more easily. Why not just be clear(er)?
    – Lambie
    Dec 30, 2022 at 18:32
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    That is correct. There is subject-verb inversion following preposed "from it".
    – BillJ
    Dec 30, 2022 at 19:43

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