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In my textbook:

  • I bought my car yesterday. ［incorrect］

Because, Until I buy that car, it doesn't belong to me.

  • I bought a car yesterday (for myself).　［correct］

From 'English Grammar in Use':

  • The person from whom I bought my car is a friend of my father's.　(correct)

Question1:

Why is "I bought my car yesterday" wrong but "The person from whom I bought my car is a friend of my father's" correct?

the man from whom I bought my car → correct

I bought my car yesterday → incorrect

What is the difference?

Question2: Is there anything wrong with "I want to buy my car" ? I think that this sentence is incorrect. I think the correct sentence is "I want to buy a car (for myself)".

What do you think about my idea.

p.s. Question3: I want to say that I will buy a car. And, after buying it, it will be my first car of my life. Is "I will buy a first car (of my life)" semantically correct?

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    There is nothing wrong with I bought my car yesterday.
    – Peter Shor
    Dec 19, 2022 at 1:50
  • @PeterShor "I want to buy my car" is wrong ?
    – Ran
    Dec 19, 2022 at 2:22
  • You should edit your question to also ask about I want to buy my car. There is nothing wrong with I bought my car yesterday but I want to buy my car is somewhat questionable.
    – Tinfoil Hat
    Dec 19, 2022 at 2:45
  • @Ran: yes, I want to buy my car is questionable, because it's not actually your car yet.
    – Peter Shor
    Dec 19, 2022 at 19:11

1 Answer 1

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"I bought my car yesterday" tells us that you now have a car and that you bought it yesterday. Unless you are programming in COBOL there are no points lost in advancing your ownership within your description of buying the car.

Saying "The person from whom I bought my car is a friend of my father's" is correct all around since the buying has already happened; from whom I bought...

Rather than "I want to buy my car" it would be more proper to say "I want to buy myself a car". But again the meaning is clear.

It would be correct to say "I will buy the first car of my life." but more comfortably as "I will buy my first car."

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  • Thank you so much .How about Question3 ?
    – Ran
    Dec 19, 2022 at 7:59
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    'I bought my car yesterday' uses a far more identificational determiner (the possessive pronoun 'my') than the indefinite article. It could be used (1) when the addressees are aware that a garage etc had reserved this car for you, (2) when everyone / some in the group had been talking about buying their first car, (3) when a passer-by sees you admiring your new-to-you car and says "Nice wheels. I'm not sure whether it's the right time to change my car what with second-hand prices being so high." etc.
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Dec 19, 2022 at 14:39
  • @Elliot With ordinal number : future-tense + possessive is okay.　Because, his first car means the first car for him. e.g. I will buy my first car. ✅ I will buy him his second car.　✅ Without ordinal number : future-tense + possessive is not okay. Because, his car means the car that he has now.　So, It is not "his car" before it is purchased. e.g. I will buy my car. ❌(→ I will buy myself a car. ✅) I will buy him his car. ❌　(→ I will buy him a car. ✅) 　　　　 Is this opinion right ?
    – Ran
    Dec 20, 2022 at 14:38
  • With an ordinal, the future tense + possessive can be used, and without an ordinal, the future tense + possessive cannot be used. Why is this? I would like to know the difference.
    – Ran
    Dec 20, 2022 at 14:49

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