Today I was told that "I give nothing to..." cannot be used as "nothing" does not exist and so I cannot give it. But don't you often say "I have nothing to do"? How come that in this case it works, how can you have "nothing" to do? And one additional one, "I have no idea" is correct, what about "I do not have any idea"? Imho this is correct too, right? Thanks
closed as not a real question by JSBձոգչ, kiamlaluno, Matt E. Эллен♦, user11550, MetaEd Aug 29 '12 at 6:48
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You have been misinformed. It's perfectly grammatical to "give nothing", just as to "have nothing", "love nobody", "want nothing" or "go nowhere", etc.
I think it is easy if you read nothing as 'no thing(s)', where thing can also be I have no thing(s) (or tasks) to do.