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I've read a conference paper by Sven Koehler et al., where it says,

[Figure 5.] Finetuning of the ACDC model with an increasing number of GCN patients. There is one plot for each label each with one line per dataset. The blue (upper) line describes the dice score on the ACDC split + n GCN patients, the orange (middle) line describes the dice score on the held out ACDC test split and the green line (lower) describes the dice score on the unseen GCN patients. The latter is exclusive the GCN patients which were added for the finetuning.

I first thought this was a typo, and it should read instead, The latter is exclusively the GCN patients which..., but this would not make sense (in the context of the study presented there, as we need an independent sample of GCN patients for the evaluation).

Thus, I am now thinking they rather want to say, The latter is without the GCN patients which..., which is exactly the opposite meaning. Is my interpretation correct? Can "exclusive" actually be used in this way?

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  • The general style suggests some sloppiness on the part of the authors. May 30 at 21:39
  • Do you refer to the style of the figures etc. or the language? May 31 at 5:55
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    It looks like it wasn't proofread with care. May 31 at 8:03

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There are two possibilities raised by adding a single word, which have opposite meanings. Exclusive of means excluding:

The latter is exclusive of the GCN patients

Exclusive to would mean including GCN and excluding all others:

The latter is exclusive to the GCN patients

This answer explains it well: https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/200070/meaning-of-exclusive-to-of-in-in-the-given-scenarios

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    Thanks. I had not thought of "exclusive of", that would indeed fit here. Without any preposition the use of exclusive here would not work, right? May 31 at 5:51

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