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  1. After all I have seen, I know but one thing.
  2. After I have seen all, I know but one thing.

For me, these two sentences mean the same thing. Could there be any difference?

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    They don't mean the same thing.
    – Hot Licks
    Apr 3, 2022 at 16:45
  • They're both in a literary register, but 'After I have seen all' takes it into the restricted section. // But the essence is that 'I have seen everything' is very different in meaning from ' ... everything I have seen'. The first makes a very hyperbolic claim (one hopes using literary licence intentionally). Apr 3, 2022 at 18:04

1 Answer 1

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They do not mean the same thing.

After all I have seen, I know but one thing.

means I have seen some things, and after I have seen everything that I have seen I know but one thing.

After I have seen all, I know but one thing.

means that I have seen everything, and after that I know but one thing.

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