Please consider the following sentence:
When cars collide, it creates a debris hazard on the road.
In a debate, I claimed the sentence is ungrammatical because the pronoun "it" has no antecedent. However, I was unable to find a rule in my 12th edition of the Gregg Reference Manual for "dangling pronouns."
The only noun in evidence is "cars," so the antecedent of "it" could, implicitly, be any one of the cars. The adverbial clause "when cars collide" could imply an instant in time, and "it" might refer to that time. However, I know of no rule that permits an adverbial clause to function as a noun.
Much more likely is that "it" refers to an implicit "collision," but there is no structure in that sentence that could even remotely serve as a concrete antecedent meaning "collision."
I lost my argument because I was unable to produce a grammar rule that disallowed the sentence. My opponent claimed that the meaning is clear. The meaning's being clear is a straw man, of course, irrelevant to the question whether the sentence is ungrammatical, but I lost the debate on votes.
My questions are, precisely:
- Is the sentence ungrammatical?
- If so, can one cite a rule that's violated?
- Can an adverbial clause function as a noun, and thus as the antecedent to a pronoun like "it?"
- If so, can one cite a rule allowing an adverbial clause to function as a noun? (ironic aside: I almost wrote "can one cite a rule allowing it," causing a nested instance of this very question).