Are those sentences grammatically correct?

"We want Emma (and us) to be part of it."

"This is where Emma (and us) want to stay."

maybe the second one should be "and we"?

1 Answer 1


The trick in checking the grammar in this kind of sentence is to remove the reference to "Emma and" (or whomever) and see if it still sounds correct.

When you do that, you'll see that the first one is grammatically correct, since you could potentially write "We want us to be part of it." (Although in this case, only if you were using "us" for emphasis, otherwise you'd be more likely to simply say, "We want to be part of it.")

But the second example doesn't work when you do that - you'd never say "This is where us want to stay." So the correct grammar in that instance would be "This is where Emma and we want to stay."

The same applies to me vs. I. Many people seem to think that, for example, "Fred and I" is always correct. However that is not true if you would say "me" - e.g. "This is a problem for Fred and me" which matches "This is a problem for me."

In grammar terms, it's the difference between whether the pronoun is the subject (we/I) or object (us/me) of the phrase.

Hope that helps!

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    Colloquial English doesn't actually work this way. Pronoun case inside coordinating constructs is in flux and has been for many centuries. The current best rule for spoken/informal English is to use the object forms always unless the pronoun is the direct subject of the verb. So "I went home" but "me and my friend went home". However, for formal or standardized writing, this answer is reasonable. I wouldn't expect a news article to say "Emma and us did..."
    – siride
    Commented Jan 7, 2022 at 21:43
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    @zan700 I would always say "My friend and I went home." I'm a native British English speaker and the other two sound very wrong to me, e.g. "Me and my friend went home" sounds like construct that a child would use - and they often do!
    – BoatieGirl
    Commented Jan 8, 2022 at 0:53
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    @siride, Is there a reference for: > use the object forms always unless the pronoun is the direct subject > of the verb"? I have never heard or seen that before and would love to know more about that in case my knowledge is out of date.
    – BoatieGirl
    Commented Jan 8, 2022 at 1:09
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    @Zan700 I would say "me and my friend went home" unless I were writing more formally, in which case I would follow traditional rules.
    – siride
    Commented Jan 8, 2022 at 1:30
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    @BoatieGirl Here are some resources: languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3469 (arnoldzwicky.org/linguistics-notes/pronoun-case-postings for the big list of related postings), web.stanford.edu/~zwicky/Grano.finalthesis.pdf. Wikipedia mentions it, with footnotes to the Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, among others. Contributors to that book also post on the Language Log. Finally, I noted this phenomenon in my own speech and deduced the rules for it. I am a suburban white male American, which certainly influences it.
    – siride
    Commented Jan 8, 2022 at 1:40

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