I am new to English language, while revising I was paraphrasing the 1st statement and got the 2nd. What I don't understand is WHY the 1st statement feels more natural while reading them when both statements are conveying essentially the same information.
Statement 1
During Aurangzeb's reign, the Mughal Empire began to deteriorate, leading to utter paralysis of the empire's administration and finances during the reigns of successive generations of Mughal emperors.
Statement 2
The process of decline of the Mughal Empire had set in during Aurangzeb's reign, which during the reign of succeeding generations of Mughal rulers led to total paralysis of administration and finances of the empire.