I often see sentences like this from non-native speakers:
?It is not possible anymore to cross the border without a passport.
To me, this sounds wrong, and I would write this instead:
It is no longer possible to cross the border without a passport.
Or this, which I think is grammatically correct but stylistically bad because it's hard to figure out what “anymore” attaches to:
It is not possible to cross the border without a passport anymore.
(Here “anymore” might be spelled “any more” in some variants of English. The spelling is out of scope of my question.)
On the other hand, I think the following sentences are equally idiomatic:
Crossing the border without a passport is not possible anymore.
Crossing the border without a passport is not possible any longer.
Crossing the border without a passport is no longer possible.
An Ngrams comparison shows that “no longer possible to” is the only common variant, but there are a few hits for the other variants which are not false positives.
I think there's a rule that “anymore” (when it's part of the construction “not … anymore” meaning “no longer”) must be at the end of the sentence. Is this an actual grammatical rule? Is “not possible anymore to …” something only non-natives say, something that uneducated native speakers say but educated native speakers consider incorrect, or something rare but idiomatic (perhaps only in certain variants of English)?