Biblehub contains various translations of John 2:10. For example, in https://biblehub.com/john/2-10.htm. Some translations use phrases like:
- too much to drink
- a lot to drink
- drunk freely
- are drunk
- have drunk freely
- have well drunk
- had plenty
- have well drunk
Do all those phrases mean the same thing? If not, what are the differences? And which of those phrases mean inebriated?
In English the past participle of "drink" is the same word that means intoxicated by alcohol i.e. "drunk"
Do phrases such as "too much to drink", "a lot to drink", "drunk freely" share the same meaning?
I am not the only one that's confused, see the usage notes at Merriam-Webster: “The Unsteadiness of 'Drank' and 'Drunk'”
Background
I've been told that the translation part from Koine Greek may not be on topic of this site. So this is just background info. And if you can answer that too it'd be great.
The original Koine Greek verse contains the Greek verb μεθυσθῶσιν, which means "to get intoxicated by alcohol." I am not 100% sure. However, users on our sister site for Biblical Hermeneutics say that this most likely meant being inebriated. See for example here.
It has root words of methio which means inebriated. This dictionary translation appears to confirm it.
μεθύω - I am intoxicated with wine, am drunk
Most of the English translations appear to disagree.
So whether the translations are good translations, or biased ones, is the motive of this question. However, the question itself is just whether the phrases mean the same thing and whether the meaning is inebriated.
