Canada does not require that U.S. citizens obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico doesn't either.

My question is why would these be incorrect if we use them after "and" as it is:

  1. Mexico does neither.
  2. Neither Mexico does.
  • You could write "nor does Mexico", but 'neither' isn't called for here. – Jim Mack Apr 2 at 16:07
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    3. neither does Mexico. – Davo Apr 2 at 16:07
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    Mexico does neither means that Mexico does not do either of two things (which have already been mentioned). (2) is ungrammatical. – Kate Bunting Apr 2 at 17:20
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    Grammatical means "well formed; in accordance with the productive rules of the grammar of a language."-Lexico "When a clause with neither or nor is used after a negative clause, we invert the subject and the verb after neither and nor:" -Cambridge It's a usage rule. – Cascabel Apr 2 at 17:30
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    Thanks @Cascabel you confirmed that it is just the formation as i guessed. :D Thanks to everyone else who helped ♥ – Walden Apr 3 at 11:16

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