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Regarding the fact that this is still somehow a hot topiс in English language-speaking communities I need to stress out that is a serious and respectful question without even a trace of intention to mock someone's preferences or to doubt one's right to self-identification.

Quite often in twitter profile people point out personal pronoun they prefer. As a non-native speaker what I don't understand why one need to provide the pronoun in two cases. For instance, consider following profiles: "he / him" or "she / her". If one prefer to be referred "he" in Nominative case, doesn't it imply that in Dative/Accusative (or whatever is the right term in English) they will expect to be referred as "him" and for Genitive they will prefer "his".

So, the question is: why there it's usually common to list two forms and why exactly this two forms: not "he" / "his", for instance.

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    It's merely that 'he/him' must be taken as a shortened form of 'he/him/himself/his'. It is assumed that the reader will fill in the gaps as required. Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 12:19
  • @EdwinAshworth why it must be taken that way - if one prefers "he" what options there should be then not preferring "him". If there are such options, then other forms can differ as well.
    – shabunc
    Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 12:21
  • Given the specified subject-case form, the object-case form is redundant -- but redundancy is not bad, and it helps to confirm the writer's intended meaning, and to guard against typos. Sometimes a third form is supplied, too (eg. she/her/hers) for even more redundancy.
    – Rosie F
    Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 12:28
  • @RosieF I've never implied it's bad. Also I believe that this can be an answer as well.
    – shabunc
    Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 13:06
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    With "she/her" it's unnecessary but with non-standard pronouns like "xe" there would be value in giving more forms.
    – Stuart F
    Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 13:46

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