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While looking at the search results for "a 20/20 vision" in a question on ELL asking whether there should be an article before 20/20 vision, I noticed that many of the results that were the correct context and from sources that were not obviously written by non-native speakers seemed to be grouped between the 1920s and 1960s. For example,

In that state you must have a 20 / 20 vision in one eye , or a 20 / 30 vision in the better eye and at least 20 / 40 vision in the poorer eye (Source from 1935)

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Don't let a 20/20 vision lull you into a false sense of eye security. It's a common misconception, say University of Chicago eye specialists, that a 20/20 finding means normal vision. (Source from 1955)

I attempted to use Google's NGram viewer to get a better look, but I struggled with getting it to recognize the syntax to handle the "/" properly and couldn't get it to return meaningful results showing the contexts where the phrase was detected. The examples I could find often freely mixed using the indefinite article and the zero article in the same sentence, and looking at the image of the text, it wasn't an OCR error.

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With a 20/20 vision in each eye, the stop sign as well as the word "STOP" could be seen distinctly at 255 ft., both eyes open. With 20/30 vision in each eye it was visible at 200 ft. With 20/70 vision it was visible at 100ft...

Prior to looking at the examples, I thought that an article shouldn't be used vision measurements like "20/x vision". Now, I'm not so sure.

Is it acceptable to use either the indefinite article or zero article with a vision measurement in modern AmE, for example, "The pilot had a 20/20 vision in both eyes." If not, did it used to be acceptable and the usage evolved away from using an article? Is there a difference in BrE?

Because of my difficulties searching the corpora available to me, I feel like I may be interpreting a few spurious results as more important than they are, but I'd like to know one way or the other.

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    Honestly, I think the example you give is just an error. "20/20" has the effect of an adjective, and it is just as incorrect to saw "with a good vision in each eye" as it is to say "with a 20/20 vision in each eye." So your view that the indefinite article is not needed is correct, despite the counter example you found. At best I'd say the article was using a figure of speech, where "20/20 vision" meant "excellent visual capability". So "With an excellent visual capability in each eye." This does seem to be what the author means, but it is certainly a jarring phrase to my native ear.
    – Fraser Orr
    Feb 19, 2021 at 18:50
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    You could check using a Google search for the expanded versions: "with [a] twenty-twenty vision". The anarthrous version is far more idiomatic (notice that there are quite a few false positives such as 'Kick off the year with a Twenty-Twenty Vision Workshop', and arguably lyrics). Feb 19, 2021 at 18:58
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    “20/20 vision” without article appears to be more commonly used google.com/search?q=a+20/…
    – user 66974
    Feb 19, 2021 at 19:29
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    That seems unlikely, given that (whether in digits or in words), twenty-twenty / 20-20 vision wasn't a common collocation until after WW2. Feb 19, 2021 at 19:52
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    Apologies; one needs four 'wordsworths' apparently for << twenty-twenty >> on Google ngrams, which is prohibitive. One is stuck with raw Google searches, Google Books, and other corpora, possibly examining individual results. Feb 19, 2021 at 20:00

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