About ten days ago I had asked a question about "syllabification" and received an excellent answer. That answer said: "there's a phonological rule called Maximal Onset Principle (MOP), according to which intervocalic consonants should be syllabified as the onset of the following syllable as long as the Phonotactic constraints allow it. This would mean that VCV has to be syllabified as V.CV as long as the onset of the second syllable is permissible."
And that's why "banana" (in British English) should be divided as /bə.ˈnɑː.nə/ and in American English as /bə.ˈnæn.ə/.
It took me a week to fully understand the theories explained in that answer. Now if I understand it correctly, the word "loosely", /ˈluːsli/, should be divided as /ˈluː.sli/. That is, the sl should be the "onset" of the following syllable (compare /bə.ˈnɑː.nə/), But it is divided as /ˈluːs.li/ instead.
Cambridge Dictionary is quite consistent with their syllabification and it gives /ˈluːs.li/.
Is it because "loosely" is made up of "loose" and "ly" and should be divided as separately? Or is it an exception?