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In consideration of the following sentence, I have a question about which word is modified by the final preposition, "without charge."

The sentence:

A “thing of value" means any form of credit or promise involving extension of a service, entertainment or a privilege of playing at a game or scheme without charge.

The placement of "without charge" at the end of the sentence with the participle "involving" and so many prepositions seems confusing. Is there a grammatical rule based upon the absence of comma after "scheme" or the location of "without charge" at the end of the sentence which determines whether "without charge" relates to "form," "credit or promise," "extension," "service, entertainment or privilege,""playing," or "game or scheme"?

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    Sounds like a legal definition, with ambiguity built in from the start. There's work here for lawyers. Commented Feb 5, 2021 at 22:21
  • Using parentheses mathematically, are the alternatives meant to be (extension of a service),(entertainment),(a privilege of playing at a game or scheme without charge)? Using dot points or numbered points would make it clear.
    – Peter
    Commented Feb 6, 2021 at 1:41
  • These are the non-tangible things (not money or property) of value : 1. a free service. 2. free entertainment. 3. playing for free. (Without charge applies to all three.) Commented Feb 6, 2021 at 3:56
  • Without charge is adverbial modifying the gerund "playing". However, that is the least of your worries, the sentence has errors.
    – Greybeard
    Commented Feb 6, 2021 at 13:44

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