I saw someone said "Had you anyone specific in mind" in an old English drama. How am I supposed to understand this sentence?
The answer is in the context. In British English, it is possible to use the lexical form of the verb "have," with its meaning of "possession," as an operator that can be used in the context of a question. For this reason, you can, instead of inserting the auxiliary "do," just use the verb "have" to introduce a question. The meaning of the question is "Did you have anyone specific in mind?" It has nothing to do with the subjunctive mood. This usage is, however, not very common today, which is why it sounds a bit off. Source: Quirk, R. et al (1972) A Grammar of Contemporary English, Longman Group Limited: London.