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I think I saw some ordinary adverbs modifying the infinitive in front of the infinitive marker 'to', which were not 'not' nor 'never'. Is this usage of adverbs standard? (I thought you wouldn't need any examples.)

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    Please give examples. What did you see, and where?
    – Xanne
    Aug 16, 2020 at 3:28
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    If you choose not to split the infinitive, the adverb usually goes after the verb, not before. E.g. "to go boldly" rather than "boldly to go".
    – Barmar
    Aug 16, 2020 at 5:10
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    Does this answer your question? Are split infinitives grammatically incorrect, or are they valid constructs? Aug 16, 2020 at 13:43
  • Thank you, sir. Then are ordinary adverbs(not 'not') modifying infinitive verbs before the marker 'to' ever used? Aug 17, 2020 at 6:01

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The usage (To clearly perceive) is not regarded as standard by many editors, but is undoubtedly common (see the humorous https://www.theguardian.com/science/shortcuts/2017/sep/25/to-boldly-go-split-infinitive-grammatical-error-research).

A full discussion is at http://www.lel.ed.ac.uk/grammar/splitinf.html

The rule that an infinitive should not be split is arbitrary, unnecessarily inhibiting, and does not reflect common usage.

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  • Thank you, sir. Then are ordinary adverbs(not 'not') modifying infinitive verbs before the marker 'to' ever used? Aug 17, 2020 at 5:59

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