The King James Bible has Job 30:2 as “Yea, whereto might the strength of their hands profit me, in whom old age was perished?” which I understood to mean, “What use are their hands to me, men whose strength is sapped?”
And indeed I’ve found translations since in which “in whom old age was perished” becomes “men whose vigor is gone” (English Standard Version) or “in whom old vigor hath perished” (Darby Bible), but I still can’t help but find that phrase, “in whom old age was perished,” just a bit odd. I’m to think of it, I suppose, as an auxiliary, like “He is risen.” But if I didn’t know better, I’d say it sounds as if old age itself were “perished,” which can’t be right. Would a “hath” in this case have been so foreign to translators of the King James Version, and is there something missing from my understanding?
Thank you!