Sorry if I'm bad at explaining, I'm not a native speaker.
I had an interesting exchange with someone regarding a very particular sentence. Here goes:
For context; they are talking about an existing restaurant and are writing a short history paragraph about it.
The sentence: "The recipes have been passed down and become the recommended dishes".
I argued that in this particular context, it's not correct to use "and become" because you're talking about a certain event that has already passed; that is, when the recipes made it into the menu. So I argued that it had to be "and have become the recommended dishes" OR "and became the recommended dishes".
Their argument is that they can omit the second use of "have" before "become" because the entire sentence uses the same tense (present perfect).
I feel like their proposed sentence has an illogical meaning the way it is constructed, and changing it to "has become" or "became" are correct in this particular context.
Am I right or wrong here?
Thank you in advance.