What is the difference between in the meaning :
- I have never wanted to cook
- I never wanted to cook
- I have always wanted to do that
- I always wanted to do that
Is it possible that we use the second one to say both in U.S?
English Language & Usage Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts. It only takes a minute to sign up.Sign up to join this community
The present perfect tense (as in, "I have never wanted to cook") expresses an action that began in the past and has its effects felt in the present.
The simple past, on the other hand, expresses something that happened in the past, without regard to its present effects.
The difference can be subtle or profound, depending on the context. To take an example from Christian theology, saying "Christ rose from the dead" indicates a past event, but to say "Christ has risen from the dead" has far deeper meaning for the believer in Christ, as it relates to his or her life today.