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For example:

  • "Yes, I like to read news from other part of the world because it's a good way to keep yourself up to date with the rest of the world."

using yourself to refer to reading news as "a good way to keep up with the rest of the world" while still referring to myself as the subject

instead of going with "Yes, I like to read news from other part of the world because it's a convenient way for me to keep myself up to date with the rest of the world."

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    Does this answer your question? Dictionary form - oneself vs. yourself – Edwin Ashworth May 19 at 10:44
  • "It's a good way to keep oneself / yourself [the former more formal in register] up to date" is a general statement. But after "I like to read news ...", "for me to keep myself ... " is a much better fit. It wouldn't work too well without facilitating context: "Hello, John, you're right about the need to keep abreast of the facts at the moment. */??Reading news from other part of the world is a good way to keep myself up to date with the rest of the world." – Edwin Ashworth May 19 at 10:52
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I'm sure there's a lot of useful grammar information that could be extracted from those two grammatically correct sentences, but I wouldn't interchange them that way. It depends a lot on the context.

The first one, "Yes, I like to read news from other parts of the world because it's a good way to keep yourself up to date." suggests generality, matter-of-fact, or even didactic undertones, in a lot of cases.
For example, when a father says that to a kid.

The second one, "Yes, I like to read news from other parts of the world because it's a good way for me to keep myself up to date." suggests an opinion, a piece of conversation, specific to that person, that might not hold for another, in a lot of cases.
For example, when a friend who gets news through the radio, asks another out of curiosity if and why they read a lot of newspapers.

It depends on the context. There are examples where the first one is not didactic at all and where the second one is.

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