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It's from the Vikings

"I think a wife was not supposed to nag her husband until THEY'D HAD time to grow tired of each other?"

Why did he use past perfect here, it should have been only one "had", right??

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    No. "Wrong". :) The past perfect is used in narrative to set context and background to the "main" event. The past perfect indicates an action that has ceased in the past but which relates in some way to the main action/state - here, the main action/state is "nag her husband." – Greybeard Apr 11 '20 at 9:24
  • Could you tell me what difference it'd make with a single "had"? – English--more exc than laws Apr 11 '20 at 9:28
  • It would imply that there was a recognised and set time for this nagging, whereas the past perfect does not imply this but rather sees it as an option or condition. – Greybeard Apr 11 '20 at 9:33
  • Using the past perfect or past tense both imply the same meaning in this case, I think.If I used single had then there would be a chronological sequence of action (not supposed to nag to a future event of "until") but as he used past perfect, it also implies same meaning but we sense the "logical" occurrence of events (as she nagged after "it had happened" ). Do I make sense xD? – English--more exc than laws Apr 11 '20 at 9:48
  • "Until they had time to..." suggests to me that they were waiting until they had sufficient free time to get some task done. Obviously what is meant here is "until sufficient time had elapsed for them to grow tired" - the 'having time' was in the past. – Kate Bunting Apr 11 '20 at 11:59
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In a comment, Greybeard wrote:

No. "Wrong". :) The past perfect is used in narrative to set context and background to the "main" event. The past perfect indicates an action that has ceased in the past but which relates in some way to the main action/state - here, the main action/state is "nag her husband."

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