What objective SYNTAX facts make late 1800 writing different from 2020 writing? Why even highly educated, among themselves, in 2020 write much less formally than their counterparts in 19 century?
I want writing for ordinary laypeople, so I picked old Canada newspapers that don't use ten-dollar words for boondocks like Saskatchewan. I never study linguistics or literature. But how I can straight away realize syntax's not from 2020? Syntax's much formal, highbrow! But why? What SYNTAX facts are my brain picking up that I can't put in word?
Sentence length isn't reason. Sentences in 2020 can be long, but I can just feel instinct they differ from these late 1800 sentences.
1888 Nov 14 edn. of Daily Colonist
jsw29 explained why this doesn't duplicate this. Thanks jsw29!!!
The answers there "redescribe the phenomenon that the OP wants explained, but they do not explain it. The OP probably knows that, for example, we now perceive 'it affords us great pleasure' as 'highly affected and obsolete'; she wants to know WHY we so perceive it."
This explanation of what makes our evidence about 19th century English skewed is highly convincing, but it accounts for only a part of the phenomenon that the OP is asking about. It does not explain why EVEN the highly educated, among themselves, speak nowadays much less formally than their counterparts in the 19th century.