I am wondering if "it's ok to..." (e.g. as in "it's ok for us to leave now") would count as an it-cleft construction. When I consider Quirk et al.'s (1985) A Comprehensive Grammar of the English Language, it seems to me like all the components are given, the focus might be argued to lie on the "ok", and so forth - still, it seems a little odd to me and I am unsure about this. Can anybody shed some light?


1 Answer 1


A cleft construction presupposes fronting of components that are usually placed elsewhere in syntactic terms: "My father lied" vs. "It's my father who lied". This case seems different since the it-clause is the canonical structure vs. less usual "for us to leave now is ok"

  • perfect, that makes sense, thanks!
    – Yato
    Commented Mar 31, 2020 at 17:05

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