The burden of proof is easier to discharge in a civil cases than in a criminal case, the standard of proof being one based on balance of probabilities.

Why there is no verb in the latter sentence? Is it grammatically correct?

  • Just FYI: btb.termiumplus.gc.ca/tpv2guides/guides/wrtps/…. It's more common in writing than in speech. It would probably be a because clause in speech (or maybe as or since). – KannE Mar 9 at 9:31
  • Compare She raced along the beach, her hair flying in the wind. (This absolute clause adds further detail only.) // Manchester Hotspurs may still qualify for the Champions League, their remaining fixtures being easier on paper than their rivals'. (This absolute clause, like that in the original, adds an explanation to justify or at least bolster the assertion made in the main clause.) – Edwin Ashworth Mar 10 at 14:19
  • Thx so much ^^. – KIte Mar 11 at 3:59

There is only one sentence in your example. The text after the comma, the standard of proof being one based on balance of probabilities, contains the non-finite verb being.

Such constructions are often called absolute clauses, defined as follows by The Oxford Dictionary of English Grammar (p4):

Absolute clause: A non-finite or verbless clause containing its own subject, attached to the sentence from which it is separated by a comma, (or commas), and not introduced by a subordinator. Also called an absolute construction.

In this case, the subject of the absolute clause is the standard of proof and the sentence as a whole is grammatical.

| improve this answer | |
  • Wouldn't all of "the standard of proof" be the subject with the clause being roughly equivalent to the sentence "the standard of proof is one based on balance of probabilities"? – CJ Dennis Mar 10 at 3:47
  • CJ Dennis. You are right. It was an oversight to leave out of proof. I have amended my answer accordingly. Thanks. – Shoe Mar 10 at 10:05

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