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I have noticed that voiceless sound at the end of a word becomes voiced when followed by a word that starts with a vowel. For example: It has affected us (/s/) all => It has affected us (/z/) all. I have also heard it in the following example: Both (/θ/) of you should go => Both (/ð/) of you should go.

Does it happen every time when a voiceless consonant is followed by a word beginning with a vowel? Thanks. :)

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    It's not that one thing becomes another. It's that the muscles that create the consonant and the muscles that create the voiced vowel are independently articulated, and therefore their relative timings are not always coordinated precisely. Voice Onset Time (VOT) varies greatly from individual to individual, and from sentence to sentence by the same individual. So sometimes it does and sometimes it doesn't is probly the best answer. – John Lawler Mar 1 '20 at 17:09
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In a comment John Lawler wrote:

It's not that one thing becomes another. It's that the muscles that create the consonant and the muscles that create the voiced vowel are independently articulated, and therefore their relative timings are not always coordinated precisely. Voice Onset Time (VOT) varies greatly from individual to individual, and from sentence to sentence by the same individual. So sometimes it does and sometimes it doesn't is probly the best answer.

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