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Is anything wrong in this sentence?

The enemy, beaten at every point, fled from the field.

According to my book it should instead be:

The enemy, having been beaten at every point, fled from the field.

Why?

There is only one subject in this sentence, so there should only be one verb; that is, fled.

How can we use having been + the past participle?

What’s the difference between the two sentence structures?

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    Why do you think a subject can have only one corresponding verb?
    – nnnnnn
    Feb 8 '20 at 6:02
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    The past participle beaten is here used like an adjective to describe the condition of the enemy. Feb 8 '20 at 8:55
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    The words "beaten at every point" form a subordinate clause. The sentence would stand grammatically without them - the main verb being "fled". Using the verb composite "having been beaten..." would be perfectly alright - but it is almost entirely synonymous with "beaten...".
    – WS2
    Feb 8 '20 at 8:56
  • It's a reduced form, according to one analysis, after be-deletion ('having been' is omitted). Or if you consider the expanded form to exist but to be 'The enemy, who had been beaten at every point, fled from the field,' after whiz-deletion. Both covered before, though the passive forms are harder to locate. Feb 8 '20 at 15:18
  • Any book that tells you something a native speaker says is wrong is wrong. There is almost never only one correct way to say something (outside the artificial rules of a classroom). More likely there are fifty. Mar 9 '20 at 17:35
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In the sentence "The enemy, beaten at every point, fled from the field", ...beaten at every point...is similar to "....having been beaten at every point..."

It is the passive form of 'having + 3rd form',

like "Having completed the work, he proceeded on leave", changing into "The work having been completed (by him), he proceeded on leave."

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